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95 Cards in this Set

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During what operations does the United States adheres to domestic and international law?



a. Multilateral and mulitnational.


b. Unilateral and multinational.


c. Universal and multilateral.


d. Universal and unilateral.

b. Unilateral and multinational.

The National Security Act of 1974 established all of the military departments EXCEPT:



a. Army.


b. Navy.


c. Marines.


d. Air Force.

c. Marines.

Which is NOT an instrument of national power to achieve objectives that contribute to national security?



a. Miltary.


b. Economic.


c. Diplomatic.


d. Democratic.


d. Democratic.

Strategy involves understanding the desired policy goals for what type of operation?



a. Unexpected.


b. Completed.


c. Projected.


d. Executed.

c. Projected.

Under the total force policy, what plan covers all degrees of volunteerism, involuntary recall, mobilization, and demobilization to support the Joint Strategic Plan (JSCP) and Deliberate Plans and Crisis Action Planning?



a. Demobilization.


b. Mobilization.


c. Execution.


d. Strategic.

b. Mobilization.

Accounting for all Air Force at all times regardless of location is what element of accountability?



a. Tasked wing.


b. Total force.


c. Transient.


d. Strength.

b. Total force.

What element of accountability is it when enabling planners and managers to support the commander's concept of operations?



a. Unit.


b. Strength.


c. Total force.


d. Tasked wing.

c. Total force.

Regardless of status, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) maintains accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients at their deployed and designated geographically separated location.



Which element of accountability does this describe?



a. Tasked wing.


b. Total force.


c. Transient.


d. Strength.

d. Strength

When there is a need to know where assigned personnel are at any given time, where they live, and where they work describes which element of accountability?



a. Unit.


b. Strength.


c. Total force.


d. Tasked wing.

a. Unit.

Forces that spend at least one night in billeting at a location but their final duty location is elsewhere describes which element of accountability?



a. Replacement.


b. Total force.


c. Transient.


d. Strength.

c. Transient.

The Air National Guard (ANG) is a very important component of the total force in all the following operations EXCEPT:



a. relief.


b. offensive.


c. defensive.


d. deterrence.

d. deterrence.

The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both:



a. federal and overseas missions.


b. federal and state missions.


c. state and community missions.


d. overseas and community missions.


b. federal and state missions.

The reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement?



a. Regional.


b. National.


c. Global.


d. Local.

c. Global.

The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement?



a. Deployment.


b. Employment.


c. Mobilization.


d. Demobilization.

c. Mobilization.

With what invaluable aspect does Reserve forces bring depth of experience to the mission and the Air Force?



a. Responsibility.


b. Commodity.


c. Equality.


d. Unity.

b. Commodity.

Air expeditionary force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense?



a. Aerial.


b. Global.


c. Regional.


d. National.

d. National.

The air expeditionary force (AEF) Primary purpose is to provide _________.



a. warfighter support.


b. stability to Airmen.


c. predictability to Airmen.


d. fair share tempo band support.


a. warfighter support.

The air expeditionary force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how Best to emply air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do all of these EXCEPT:



a. deploy.


b. sustain.


c. present.


d. organize.


b. sustain

The Air Force presents its force capabilities to satisfy commander requirements through which concept?



a. Air expeditionary force (AEF).


b. Operations plan (OPLAN).


c. Strategic warfare.


d. Global warfare.

a. Air Expeditionary Force (AEF)

What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Forece Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?



a. Air Staff.


b. Joint Staff.


c. HQ Air Force (HAF).


d. Department of Defense (DoD).

b. Joint Staff.

The Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP) is an allocation of specific rotational forces to combatant commanders, under the approval of what authority?



a. Air Staff.


b. Joint Staff.


c. Secretary of Defense (SecDef).


d. Secretary of the Air Force (SecAF).

c. Secretary of Defense (SecDEF).

The air expeditionary force (AEF) sets a baseline tempo band "A" of how many blocks?



a. two months


b. four months


c. six months


d. eight months

b. four months.

Various surging and or mobilization of Air Reserve Components (ARC) include all of the following methods EXCEPT:



a. reaching deeper.


b. reaching forward.


c. rebanding capability areas.


d. rebanding functional requirements.

d. rebanding functional requirements.

What component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is capable of establishing and operating on an air base?



a. Air expeditionary wing (AEW)


b. Air expeditionary group (AEG)


c. Air expeditionary squadron (AES)


d. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF)

a. Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

What component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) Normally consists of one or two operations squadrons, associated maintenance squadrons, and mission-specific expeditionary combat support (ECS) squadrons?



a. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF)


b. Air expeditionary squadron (AES)


c. Air expeditionary group (AEG)


d. Air expeditionary wing (AEW)

c. Air expeditionary group (AEG).

What component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is considered the basic fighting organization and the building block of the AETF structure?



a. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).


b. Air expeditionary group (AEG)


c. Air expeditioary squadron (AES)


d. Air expeditionary wing (AEW)

c. Air expeditionary squadron (AES)

What process of planning considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war?



a. Joint contingency.


b. Joint operation.


c. Mobilization.


d. Deployment.

b. Joint operation.

What planning process guides the combatant commanders (CCDR) in developing plans for the possible employment of the military instrument of national power to meet contingencies and respond to unforeseen crises?



a. Joint operation.


b. Mobilization.


c. Employment.


d. Deployment.

a. Joint operation.

The Planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes:



a. deployment.


b. sustainment.


c. employment.


d. mobilization.

d. mobilization.

Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describe what kind of planning activity?



a. Redeployment.


b. Employment.


c. Mobilization.


d. Deployment.



d. Deployment.

The application to attain specified military objectives within an operational area describes:



a. redeployment planning.


b. employment planning.


c. mobilization planning.


d. deployment planning.

b. employment planning.

Which activity planning desribes the provision of logistics and personnel services required to maintain and prolong operations until the mission is successfully accomplished?



a. Joint operation.


b. Redeployment.


c. Sustainment.


d. Operations.

c. Sustainment.

Plans that are tasked by the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) for humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, peacekeeping, or counter-drug operations describes:



a. concept


b. operation


c. functional


d. supporting

c. functional.

Which plan is prepared as tasked by the supported combatant commanders in support of their contingency?



a. Supporting.


b. Functional.


c. Operational.


d. Concept.


a. Supporting.

Which joint and service planning system is designed to facilitate rapid building and timely maintenance of plans and rapid development of effective options through adaptation of approved operation plans during crisis?



a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).


b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).


c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).


d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).


b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

Which join and servicing planning system is to enable Air Force0unique operation planning and execution processes which include associated joint policy procedures?



a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).


b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).


c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).


d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).


a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).


Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DoD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the US Armed Forces and certain foreign organizations?



a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).


b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES)


c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).


d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

All unites with a United States Air Force (USAF) personnel accounting symbol (PAS) code are registered within what joint and service planning system?


a. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).


b. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).


c. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).


d. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

b. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).


Air Force manpower an logistics requirements documented in JOPES/DCAPES time-phased force deployment data are used in support of all the following EXCEPT:


a. operations plan (OPLAN)


b. operations order (OPORD)


c. functional plan (FUNCPLAN)


d. concept of operations (CONPLAN)

c. funcitonal plan (FUNCPLAN)

A unity type code (UTC) is considered usable when it is registered in __________.


a.DCAPES with MFE and/or equipment estimates.


b. the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail.


c. the TUCHA without MFE and/or equipment detail.


d. DCAPES without MFE and/or equipment estimates.

a. DCAPES with MFE and/or equipment estimates.

A unit type code (UTC) is considered complete once it is registered in __________.


a. the TUCHA without MFE and/or equipment detail.


b. the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail.


c DCAPES without MFE and/or equipment estimates.


d. DCAPES with MFE and/or equipment estimates.

b. the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail.

What type of unit type code (UTC) is used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistics requirements for deployment, movement planning, and plan execution?


a. Standard.


b. Associate.


c. Non-standard.


d. Non-associate.

a. Standard.

What type of unit type code (UTC)is considered a placeholder for all deployable positions that cannot be described or do not fit into an existing deployable UTC.


a. Standard.


b. Associate.


c. Non-standard.


d. Non-associate.

b. Associate.

Which unit type code (UTC) attribute is used by war planners to determine which UTCs can fill their requirements?


a. Mission capability statement (MISCAP).


b. Deployment indicator (DEPID).


c. Authorized personnel (AUTH).


d. Passengers (PAX)

a. Mission capability statement (MISCAP).

The manpower force packaging (MANFOR) provides Air Force planners with standardized force capability outlining manpower requirements for all of the following EXCEPT:


a. operations planning.


b. execution documents.


c. employment planning.


d. readiness measurement.

c. employment planning.

Which of these is NOT one of the guidelines used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed?


a. New equipment types enter the inventory.


b. When new equipment needs to be replaced.


c. Significant program changes occur in manpower or equipment.


d. Deployable units experience a significant change in either operational concept or mission.

b. When new equipment needs to be replaced.

When a unit type code (UTC) is no longer needed, who can request the UTC be cancelled?



a. Installation deployment officer (IDO).


b. MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA).


c. Unit deployment manager (UDM).


d. Major command (MAJCOM).

b. MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA).

How many years after unit type codes (UTCs) are cancelled do they remain in the MEFPAK and TUCHA?


a. One.


b. Two.


c. Three.


d. Four.


a. One.

All Air Force personnel contribute to the air expeditionary force (AEF); therefore, all authorizations must be postured in the __________.


a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).


b. mission capbility statement (MISCAP).


c. unit type code (UTC) availability.


d. unit manning document (UMD).

c. unit type code (UTC) availability.

Specific unit type codes (UTCs) to posture is based on the Air Staff FAM prioritization and sequencing instructions that can be found in or on the __________.


a. AEFC AEF Online Web site.


b. HQ AFPC readiness Web site.


c. AFCSM 36-699, Military Personnel Data System


d. AFI 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution

a. AEFC AEF Online Website.

Who provides guidance on which unit type codes should be postured by the MAJCOMs, made available for planning purposes based on component headquarters' requirements, and the AETF force modules?


a. Installation deployment officer (IDO).


b. Unit deployment manager (UDM).


c. MAJCOM FAM.


d. Air Staff FAM.

d. Air Staff FAM.

A-UTCs are postured in the UTC availability and aligned to the __________.


a. Status of Resources and Traingin System (SORTS).


b. air and space expeditionary force (AEF) libraries.


c. needs of the deployment location.


d. temp bands.

b. air and space expeditionary force (AEF) libraries.

Mobilization of the air reserve component (ARC) is also called or considered ________.


a. initiation.


b. activation.


c. recruitment.


d. employment.

b. activation.

To meet Immediate requirements for augmentation of the active Air Force during emergency or contingency operations describes which type of activation?


a. Volunteerism.


b. Total mobilization.


c. Partial mobilization.


d. Presidential selected reserve callup.

a. Volunteerism.

Expansion of the active armed forces by mobilization of reserve component (RC) units and/or individual reservists to deal with a situation where armed forces may be required to protect life, federal property and functions or to prevent disruption of federal activities describes which type of activation?


a. Full mobilization.


b. Total mobilization.


c. Partial mobilization.


d. Selective mobilization for a domestic emergency.

d. Selective mobilization for a domestic emergency.

Activation that requires passage by the Congress of a public law or joint resolution declaring war or a national emergency describes:


a. full mobilization.


b. total mobilization.


c. partial mobilization.


d. presidential selected reserve call up.

a. full mobilization.

What type of activation is used to accelerate the mobilization of selecte members of the pre-trained individual manpower (PIM) in anticipation of their need to fill wartime requirements?


a. Push-Pull.


b. Full mobilization.


c. Total mobilization.


d. Partial mobilization.

a. Push-Pull.

Normally, Push-Pull activation will NOT be recommended unless all of the following factors are present EXCEPT:


a. major contingencies involve larger groups of personnel.


b. shortages can be predicted in terms of AFSC, quantity, and timing.


c. large deployments of Air Force forces are required accompanied by expected personnel shortages.


d. pre-trained individual manpower (PIM) resources represent the best source of personnel to satisfy the projected shortages.


a. major contingencies involve larger groups of personnel.

Once the deactivation process occurs, the projected separation in the personnel data system (PDS) flows from base to Headquarters Air Force (HAF); the HAF records status changes from 10 to _____.


a. 17


b. 18


c. 19


d. 20

d. 20

On the projected effective date of deactivation, Headquarters Air Force (HAF) changes the member's record status from 20 to ____.


a. 81


b. 82


c. 83


d. 84

a. 81

When demobilization orders are not required, what two documents are used to verify deactivation?


a. DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher.


b. Copy of activation orders and DD Form 214.


c. DD Form 214 and a copy of temporary duty (TDY) orders.


d. Copy of temporary duty (TDY) orders and paid travel voucher.

a. DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher.

In order to be issued a DD Form 214, how many days MUST an activated volunteer serve?


a. 30


b. 45


c. 60


d. 90

d. 90

In order for the installation deployment officer to perform his or her duties he or she MUST be a qualified ______.


a. logistic cargo manager.


b. logistic readiness officer.


c. unit deployment manager.


d. deployment readiness officer.

b. logistic readiness officer.

When a deployment tasking hits the base, who is the First person to receive all deployment taskings, including individual augmentee taskings?


a. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).


b. Installation deployment officer (IDO).


c. Wing/installation commander (WG/CC).


d. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

b. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

Who determins the frequency and scope of exercises based on what is necessary to ensure the deployment process runs efficiently and that all units, including associate units, are prepared to deploy?


a. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).


b. Installation deployment officer (IDO).


c. Wing/installation commander (WG/CC).


d. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

c. Wing/installation commander (WG/CC).

It is very important for the wing/installation commander to establish a direct line of responsibility and communication with the installation deployment officer (IDO) in order to approve the local procedures for deploying forces through the installation deployment plan for all of the following in EXCEPT:


a. supplies.


b. mobility.


c. planning.


d. readiness.


a. supplies.

The wing/installation commander ensures procedures are established to notify Airmen within how many hours of receipt for AEF rotational taskings?


a. 24.


b. 48.


c. 72.


d. 96.

d. 96

Who provides overall management including, but not limited to, secure storage, issue and receipt, and shelf life control for mobility bags under their control?


a. Installation deployment officer (IDO)


b. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC)


c. Force support squadron commander (FSS/CC)


d. Logistic readiness squadron commander (LRS/CC)

d. Logistic readiness squadron commander (LRS/CC).

Who does the installation deployment cell (IDRC) have a direct line of communication and responsibility to?


a. Logistics readiness flight (LGRR)


b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR)


c. Installation deployment officer (IDO)


d. Wing/installation commander (WG/CC)

d. Wing/installation commander (WG/CC)

The permanent staff of the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) consists of all the following EXCEPT:


a. Logistics plan.


b. Logistics cargo.


c. Installation personnel readiness (IPR)


d. Installation deployment officer (IDO)

b. Logistics cargo.

The installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:


a. loading taskings and information into (DCAPES)


b. distributing taskings and information.


c. identifying taskings and information.


d. validating taskings and information.

a. loading taskings and information into (DCAPES).

Who has the responsibility to make sure subordinate units have the necessary equipment and communication to support command and control readiness systems?


a. Unit personnel.


b. Unit deployment manager.


c. Supporting wing/installation.


d. Supporting major command.

d. Supporting major command.

What agency is respnsible for assessing and assisting Airmen and family members during emergencies?


a. Airman and Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).


b. Air Force personnel readiness cell (AFPRC).


c. Major command readiness (MAJCOM).


d. Verans Affair (VA).

a. Airman and Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

Who will each major command (MAJCOM) and the National Guard Bureau (NGB) direct to make sure all wing and installation commanders and geographically separated units (GSU) have evacuation plans and tracking procedures in place to account for all personnel in the event of a natural disaster or national emergency?


a. HQ AFPC/DPA.


b. HQ AFPC/CAT.


c. Plans and Programs.


d. Plans and Requirements.

d. Plans and Requirements.

Within 48 hours of a natural disaster or national emergency, who will make sure unit commanders are aware of their responsibilities and that evacuation plans for bases have fully addressed the need to account for all categories of personnel after a natural disaster or national emergency?


a. Installation commanders.


b. Installation deployment officer.


c. Installation personnel readiness.


d. Installation deployment readiness center.

a. Installation commanders.

Accounting for all categories of personnel after a natural disaster or national emergency MUST occur within how many hours?


a. 12


b. 24


c. 36


d. 48

d. 48

In the event a member is stranded in a crisis area with no communications available, members are encouraged to report their status to __________.


a. their supervisor only.


b. any available agency.


c. any responding agency.


d. their unit commander only.

c. any responding agency.

Who is considered the First and Most critical link when it comes establishing accountability?


a. individual unit commanders (CC).


b. individual unit control centers (UCC).


c. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).


d. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

a. Individual unit commanders (CC).

Whose responsibility is it to ensure UCCs are trained and in place for members to report their evacuation location in the event the member and/or their families are required to relocate?


a. Unit commander (CC).


b. Major command (MAJCOM).


c. National Guard Bureau (NGB).


d. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

a. Unit commander (CC).

Who is responsible for accounting for assigned Department of Defense (DoD) civilians?


a. Unit commanders (CC).


b. Unit control centers (UCC).


c. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).


d. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

a. Unit commanders (CC).

Who is responsible for maintaining realistic and actionable evacuation plans in anticipation of national crises or natural distasters?


a. Individual unit control centers.


b. Individual unit commanders.


c. Individual support agencies.


d. Individual members.

d. Individual members.

Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) augmentation team?


a. RFPF1


b. RFPF2


c. RFPF3


d. RFPF4

b. RFPF2

Who serves as the focal point for scheduling and documenting all initail and recurring ancillary deployment training and classified courier training for personnel support for contingency operation team (PT) members?


a. Force support squadron unit deployment manager.


b. Military personnel section superintendant.


c. Military personnel section commander.


d. Force support squadron commander.

a. Force support squadron unit deployment manager.

Who is responsible for making sure personnel support for contingency operations team (PT) has a training program and certifies all PERSCO Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS) items before the person enters their assigned AEF on-call window?


a. Force support squadron unit deployment manager.


b. Military personnel section superintendant.


c. Military personnel section commander.


d. Force support squadron commander.

d. Force support squadron commander.

Who establishes strength accountability for everyone under their responsibility, regardless of location, and makes sure the appropriate updates are completed in the accountability system?


a. Unit commander (CC).


b. Unit control center (UCC).


c. Deployment contron center (DCC).


d. Personnel support for contingency operations team (PT).

d. Personnel support for contingecy operations team (PT).

What product is reviewed by units to maintain accountability by identifying personel who have departed or have not in-processed?


a. Employment requirements manning document.


b. Requirements mismatch report.


c. Duplicate position report.


d. Alpha roster.


d. Alpha roster.

After arriving in the deployed location, who is responsible for collecting and updating personnel deployment processing discrepancies?


a. Unit commander (CC).


b. Unit control center (UCC).


c. Deployment control center (DCC).


d. Personnel support for contingency operations team (PT).

d. Personnel support for contingency operations team (PT).

Within how many hours after arriving in the deployed location, is collecting and updating personnel deployment processing discrepancies completed?


a. 24


b. 36


c. 48


d. 72

d. 72

Concepts that apply to onward or forward deployments as well as returns to home station describe what kind of actions?


a. Reconstitution.


b. Sustainment operations.


c. Rotation and redeployment.


d. Planning phase and pre-deployment.

c. Rotation and redeployment.

On behalf of the deployed commander, who is responsible for coordinating and monitoring rotation, redeployment, and base closure activities?


a. Logistics planners.


b. Deployment control center.


c. Installation personnel readiness.


d. Personnel support for contingency operations team.

a. Logistics planners.

During what action phase will the PERSCO team conduct a complete inventory of supplies and equipment to make sure everything is accounted for or replenish in the case of consumables?


a. Planning phase and pre-deployment actions.


b. Rotation and redeployment actions.


c. Sustainment operations actions.


d. Reconstitution actions.

d. Reconstitution actions.

During what phase of deployment is the Most opportune time to review training and make sure of its accuracy?


a. After


b. Before


c. During


d. Between

a. After

What agency owns global command and control system Air Force (GCCS-AF) equipment at base-level?


a. Major command (MAJCOM)


b. Military personnel section (MPS)


c. Installation personnel readiness (IPR)


d. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQAFPC)

d. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQAFPC)

Personnel planners are responsible for ensureing sufficient personnel support for contingency operation teams (PT) and equipment are scheduled with what team?


a. Command and control


b. Advanced echelon


c. Augmentation


d. Sustainment


b. Advanced echelon

How often will the PT chief make sure the equipment custodian (EC) completes and inventory of supplies and equipment?


a. Every six months.


b. Every two years.


c. Semi-annually.


d. Annually.

d. Annually