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227 Cards in this Set

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1. The modern definition of agriculture includes
A) animal husbandry and shifting cultivation.
B) vegetative and seed planting.
C) multiple hearths of origin.
D) the deliberate domestication of plants and animals.
E) none of the above.
D) the deliberate domestication of plants and animals.
2. Agriculture is associated with the
A) secondary sector of the economy.
B) quaternary sector of the economy.
C) tertiary sector of the economy.
D) primary sector of the economy.
E) service sector of the economy.
D) primary sector of the economy.
3. The most practiced economic activity in the world is
A) commercial agriculture.
B) manufacturing.
C) providing a service.
D) extensive subsistence agriculture.
E) intensive subsistence agriculture
E) intensive subsistence agriculture
4. What type of diffusion is most closely associated with the Columbian Exchange?
A) Stimulus diffusion.
B) Expansion diffusion.
C) Relocation diffusion.
D) Hierarchical diffusion.
E) Contagious diffusion.
C) Relocation diffusion.
5. Agriculture is affected by all of the following except
A) cultural taboos.
B) distance to the market.
C) political policies.
D) level of economic development.
E.) all of the above.
E.) all of the above.
6. Strategies used to increase the supply of food for a country could include
A) putting more land into production.
B) increasing the yield of land under cultivation.
C) identifying new food sources.
D) increasing food imports.
E) all of the above.
E) all of the above.
7. All of the following are aspects of commercial agriculture except
A) a heavy reliance on machinery.
B) the product is consumed off the farm.
C) there is little relationship to other businesses.
D) a small percentage of the workforce is engaged directly in agriculture.
E) the average size of farms is hundreds of acres.
C) there is little relationship to other businesses.
8. The primary purpose of commercial agriculture is to
A) make a profit.
B) produce a superior product.
C) produce a product in a sustainable manner.
D) provide jobs for a large percentage of the population.
E) sustain the rural way of life.
A) make a profit.
9. The percentage of the labor force in the United States that works directly in agriculture is
A) 2-5%.
B) 5-7%.
C) 7-9%.
D) 10-12%.
E) 13-15%.
A) 2-5%.
10. The major difference between subsistence and commercial agriculture is
A) where the product is consumed.
B) that commercial agriculture is primarily focused on profit.
C) that land ownership in subsistence agricultural communities is often communal.
D) that in subsistence agriculture the motivation is to feed one’s family.
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
11. Subsistence agriculture dominates in
A) less developed countries.
B) more developed countries.
C) mid-latitude climates.
D) newly-industrialized countries.
E) none of the above.
A) less developed countries
12. Growing only enough food to feed your family is an example of
A) vegetative planting.
B) market gardening.
C) extensive commercial agriculture.
D) subsistence agriculture
D) subsistence agriculture
13. All of the following are types of subsistence agriculture except
A) pastoral nomadism.
B) truck farming.
C) shifting cultivation.
D) swidden agriculture.
E) intensive rice farming.
B) truck farming.
14. All of the following are true regarding contemporary hunting and gathering societies except
A) their way of life is preserved by many governments.
B) they tend to be isolated from modern societies.
C) they provide insight into prehistoric cultures.
D) they exist in the Arctic, the interior of Africa, Australia, and South America.
E) their numbers are rapidly declining.
A) their way of life is preserved by many governments.
15. Humans survived prior to the invention of agriculture by engaging in
A) shifting cultivation.
B) hunting and gathering.
C) pastoral nomadism.
D) hunting big game animals.
E) slash and burn cultivation techniques.
B) hunting and gathering
16. Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning the invention of agriculture?
A) The process was gradual.
B) There were multiple hearths throughout the world.
C) The process was a sudden response to extreme environmental changes.
D) Humans did little experimentation with plant domestication.
E) A and B only
E) A and B only
17. According to Carl Sauer, what best characterized the invention of plant domestication?
A) The process was gradual.
B) A number of independent hearths were established.
C) Hearths developed in areas with high biodiversity.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
D) All of the above.
18. According Carl Sauer, why did vegetative planting first start in Southeast Asia?
A) The predictable annual flooding of rivers provided needed irrigation.
B) The humid continental climate was ideal for experimentation.
C) The extensive river valleys provided excellent soil for cultivation.
D) The monsoon weather system was ideal for experimentation with plants.
E) The region’s high biodiversity allowed people to become more sedentary, which naturally led to experimentation with plants.
E) The region’s high biodiversity allowed people to become more sedentary, which naturally led to experimentation with plants.
19. All of the following were vegetative planting (root crop) hearths except
A) West Africa.
B) Southeast Asia.
C) Southwest Asia.
D) Peruvian Highlands.
E) All of the above.
C) Southwest Asia.
20. What area of the world first incorporated domestication of both plants and animals?
A) Ethiopian Highlands.
B) Southwest Asia.
C) Southeast Asia.
D) East Asia.
E) Middle America.
B) Southwest Asia.
21. Which combination of animals was domesticated in Southwest Asia?
A) Water buffalo, pig, and chicken.
B) Llama and alpaca.
C) Cattle, camel, and goat.
D) Sheep and goat.
E) Yak and horse.
D) Sheep and goat.
22. Which pairing of animal(s) and region is not correct?
A) Water buffalo, pig, and chicken – Southeast Asia.
B) Llama and alpaca – South America.
C) Cattle – South Asia.
D) Goat and sheep – Southwest Asia.
E) All of the above.
C) Cattle – South Asia.
23. What was the advantage of domesticating animals?
A) Animals provided meat.
B) Animals provided milk.
C) Animals provided furs and skins.
D) Animals were beasts of burden.
E) All of the above.
E) All of the above.
24. Which famous cultural geographer theorized that the invention of agriculture took place in multiple hearths?
A) Ester Bosrup.
B) Carl Sauer.
C) Henrich von Thunen.
D) Walter Christaller.
E) William Burgess
B) Carl Sauer.
25. _____________ did not contain an agricultural hearth.
A) Europe.
B) Asia.
C) Africa.
D) South America.
E) Middle America.
A) Europe.
26. Agricultural first diffused to Europe from
A) North Africa.
B) South Asia.
C) Southwest Asia.
D) West Africa.
E) Southeast Asia.
C) Southwest Asia.
27. Europeans evolved from farming a single field in early medieval times to rotating crops into how many different sections or fields by the 18th century?
A) One.
B) Two.
C) Three.
D) Four.
E) Five.
D) Four.
28. How did the second agricultural revolution improve agricultural production?
A) The four-field system increased yields and soil fertility.
B) New technologies such as the drill press increased production.
C) The Enclosure Movement encouraged the use of machinery.
D) Advances in breeding livestock increased production of meat and dairy.
E) All of the above.
E) All of the above.
29. What conclusion can one make with regard to the connection between the second agricultural revolution and the Industrial Revolution?
A) Advancements in agricultural production helped feed the expanding population.
B) Technological advancements helped increase agricultural production.
C) Transportation improvements made more food available to urban populations.
D) None of the above.
E) A and B only.
E) A and B only.
30. The second agricultural revolution coincided with
A) the Enlightenment.
B) the Industrial Revolution.
C) Imperialism.
D) the Age of Revolutions.
E) the first wave of European migration.
B) the Industrial Revolution.
31. The Enclosure Movement altered the geography and agricultural practices of rural England by
A) consolidating oddly shaped fields.
B) encouraging the use of more farm machinery.
C) displacing farmers.
D.) all of the above
E) A and B only.
E) A and B only.
32. When comparing the Koppen Climate Regions Map with the Whittlessey Agricultural Regions Map one can conclude that
A) there is a direct relationship between the patterns on both maps.
B) many agricultural regions exist outside their respective climate zones.
C) climate is not a limiting factor on the distribution of agriculture.
D) agricultural regions have changed a great deal in the 20th century.
E) Whittlessey’s map is outdated.
A) there is a direct relationship between the patterns on both maps.
33. Which statement regarding agricultural region(s) with respect to Whitttlessey’s Agricultural Regions map is no longer applicable?
A) Plantation agriculture doesn’t exist in North America anymore.
B) Grain regions have become smaller over time.
C) Mediterranean agriculture has declined in importance.
D) Areas of shifting cultivation have become more prominent.
E) Commercial gardening in the U.S. is still dominant along the east coast.
A) Plantation agriculture doesn’t exist in North America anymore.
34. Shifting cultivation is still practiced in many parts of
A) South Asia.
B) East Asia.
C) South America.
D) North Africa.
E) Central Asia
C) South America.
35. Shifting cultivation is a threatened form of agriculture because of
A) competition for resources from logging and mining companies.
B) population increase.
C) modern technology makes the practice obsolete.
D) A and B only.
E) none of the above.
D) A and B only.
36. Why do societies practicing shifting cultivation only farm the same plot of land for one to two years?
A) Shifting cultivation depletes nutrients from the soil faster than other methods.
B) Tropical soils are nutrient poor.
C) Pressure from the government keeps tribes moving.
D) Since they don’t own the land, tribes must keep shifting location.
E) All of the above.
B) Tropical soils are nutrient poor
37. All of the following are characteristics of shifting cultivation except
A) people usually live in small villages.
B) farmers clear land using a slash (vegetation) and burn (debris) technique.
C) crops are grown on land until the nutrients in the soil are depleted.
D) primogentric land ownership dominates shifting cultivation societies.
E) farmers usually return to the same area approximately twenty years later.
D) primogentric land ownership dominates shifting cultivation societies.
38. Swidden agriculture refers to
A) clearing land to farm using slash and burn techniques.
B) only farming cleared land for one to two years.
C) terracing steep hillsides for agricultural purposes.
D) all of the above.
E) A and B only
E) A and B only
39. The process by which people engaged in shifting cultivation plant crops of varying heights in order to protect lower crops is called
A) ridge tillage.
B) swidden agriculture.
C) intertillage.
D) shifting cutivtion.
E) subsistence agriculture.
C) intertillage.
40. Pastoral nomadism still a dominant way of life in many parts of
A) western United States.
B) central Australia.
C) Central Asia.
D) West Africa.
E) Central America
C) Central Asia.
41. Pastoral nomads predominate in
A) semi-arid deserts.
B) deserts.
C) subtropical grasslands.
D) tropical rainforest.
E) A and B only.
E) A and B only.
42. All of the following are characteristics of pastoral nomads except
A) they consume mostly grains rather than meat.
B) they trade meat and skins for grains.
C) they stay in one place when rainfall is plentiful.
D) they only consume animal products and animal by-products.
E) they primarily depend on animals for their survival
D) they only consume animal products and animal by-products
43. Herders who seasonally move their animals between mountain pastures and lowland valleys practice
A) transhumance.
B) seasonal variation.
C) swidden agriculture.
D) livestock ranching.
E) extensive subsistence agriculture.
A) transhumance.
44. Pastoral nomadism is a threatened way of life because
A) of competition for resources.
B) the nomads often cross international borders.
C) it is not an economically viable livelihood.
D) increased population pressures.
E) all of the above.
E) all of the above.
45. Pastoral nomads do not typically herd
A) cattle.
B) llamas.
C) sheep.
D) goats.
E) camels.
A) cattle.
46. Livestock ranching and pastoral nomadism both
A) exist in environments too harsh for crop production.
B) suffer from low wages.
C) rely on the same animals for their livelihood.
D) flourish in central Asia.
E) suffer from undue government regulations
A) exist in environments too harsh for crop production.
47. Pastoral nomads potentially contribute to desertification by
A) overgrazing.
B) using poor cultivation techniques.
C) moving animals frequently.
D) all of the above.
E) A and B only.
A) overgrazing.
48. What agricultural technique allows subsistence farmers in tropical and sub-tropical areas to support a large population with a small amount of arable land?
A) Four-field crop rotation system.
B) Intertillage.
C) Double cropping.
D) Swidden agriculture.
E) Slash and burn agriculture.
C) Double cropping.
50. Which of the following are examples of extensive subsistence agriculture?
A) Swidden and dairy.
B) Slash and burn agriculture and nomadic herding.
C) Shifting cultivation and livestock ranching.
D) Livestock ranching and slash and burn agriculture.
E) Nomadic herding and plantation agriculture
B) Slash and burn agriculture and nomadic herding.
51. Extensive subsistence agriculture predominates in
A) tropical rain forests.
B) sub-tropical areas.
C) semi-arid deserts.
D) deserts.
E) all of the above
C) semi-arid deserts
52. The agricultural practice most commonly associated with intensive subsistence agriculture is
A) paddy rice farming.
B) swidden agriculture.
C) plantation agriculture.
D) market gardening.
E) none of the above.
A) paddy rice farming
53. Technology essential for intensive subsistence agriculture is
A) irrigation.
B) precision agriculture techniques.
C) biotechnology.
D) advancements in pesticide research.
E) all of the above
A) irrigation
54. What geographic factor best explains why a piece of land is used intensively or extensively for agriculture?
A) Soil quality.
B) Precipitation levels.
C) Climate region.
D) Distance to the market.
E) Price of land
D) Distance to the market
55. What activity typifies extensive commercial agriculture?
A) Wheat and grain farming.
B) Livestock ranching.
C) Banana plantations in Latin America.
D) Mixed crop and livestock operations in Iowa.
E) A and B only.
E) A and B only.
56. All of the following are examples of intensive commercial agriculture except
A) dairy.
B) truck farming.
C) mixed crop and livestock.
D) horticulture.
E) paddy rice farming
E) paddy rice farming
57. What best characterizes intensive commercial agriculture?
A) Commercial agriculture dominates in More Developed Countries (MDCs).
B) Due to globalization and competition, profit margins have decreased.
C) Farmers must specialize in order to stay competitive.
D) Farmers are part of a complex and highly integrated system called agribusiness.
E) All of the above
E) All of the above
58. All of the following are environmental impacts of commercial farming except
A) over harvesting of ocean fisheries.
B) contribution to the urban heat island effect.
C) deforestation.
D) erosion of top-soil.
E) chemical contamination of drinking water.
B) contribution to the urban heat island effect.
58. Dairy farmers locate near urban areas because
A) it is expensive to transport product to market.
B) milk has a limited shelf-life.
C) land costs are high.
D) of agglomeration pressures.
E) A and B only
E) A and B only
59. Which region is not a major dairy producing area?
A) Southeast Canada.
B) Northeastern United States.
C) Southern California.
D) Northwestern Europe.
E) Southeast United States
E) Southeast United States
60. What has been the trend with respect to dairy farming in Least Developed Countries (LDCs) since the 1970s?
A) Production has declined relative to income.
B) Production has declined due to government regulations.
C) Production has increased as a total percent of world production levels.
D) Production has increased due to foreign aid.
E) None of the above.
C) Production has increased as a total percent of world production levels.
61. Dairy operations locate on the suburban fringe of metropolitan areas because
A) access to market is greater.
B) it is outside the milkshed.
C) city residents don’t like to live near farming operations.
D) it is a break-of-bulk point.
E) none of the above
A) access to market is greater.
62. Why do different regions of the United States specialize in different dairy products?
A) Soil fertility varies from region to region.
B) Their relative location with respect to the milkshed.
C) Other crops are more economical.
D) Historical customs differ for various dairy products.
E) All of the above
B) Their relative location with respect to the milkshed.
63. Dairy farmers specialize in other products rather than fresh milk because
A) of the low profit margin of milk.
B) they are located outside the milkshed.
C) of the high cost of feed.
D) of the high cost of land.
E) none of the above.
B) they are located outside the milkshed.
64. What is the best reason for why many dairy farmers in Wisconsin choose to produce butter and cheese rather than fresh milk?
A) Most dairy farmers are located too far from Milwaukee and Chicago.
B) The profit margin is higher on cheese.
C) The entire country is their market area for these products.
D) Wisconsin’s peripheral location within the United States is ideal.
E) All of the above
C) The entire country is their market area for these products
65. The most widely produced grains in the world are
A) wheat, rice, and maize.
B) wheat, rice, and oats.
C) rice, maize, and oats.
D) rice, maize, and millet.
E) rice, wheat, and barley.
A) wheat, rice, and maize
66. Most cereal grains produced in the Untied States are
A) exported to developing countries.
B) given away as foreign aid.
C) turned into processed foods such as breakfast cereals and breads.
D) sold to food processing industries.
E) fed to livestock
E) fed to livestock
67. The most important large-scale commercial wheat producing countries in the world include all of the following except
A) United States.
B) Ukraine.
C) Switzerland.
D) Argentina.
E) Australia.
C) Switzerland.
68. All of the following are major wheat producing states except
A) North Dakota.
B) Nebraska.
C) Kansas.
D) Iowa.
E) Montana
D) Iowa.
69. What accounts for dramatic increased yields of wheat in developed countries since the 1950s?
A) Increased use of machinery.
B) Increased use of pesticides.
C) Increased use of fertilizers.
D) Development of improved seed varieties.
E) All of the above.
E) All of the above.
70. Grain produced in the United States is used for all of the following except it is
A) purchased by food processing companies for baked products.
B) sent around the world as foreign aid.
C) stored in grain elevators for and sold in the market when prices increase.
D) consumed predominately by local communities throughout the Midwest.
E) sent to sub-Saharan Africa for famine relief.
D) consumed predominately by local communities throughout the Midwest.
71. The country that produces the most maize in the world is
A) Canada.
B) United States.
C) Ukraine.
D) Brazil.
E) Argentina.
B) United States.
72. Suitcase farms are most associated most with
A) mixed crop and livestock farming.
B) grain farming.
C) market gardening.
D) dairy farming.
E) luxury crops.
B) grain farming.
73. The area in Canada most associated with grain farming is
A) the Maritime Provinces.
B) Ontario.
C) the Northwest Territories.
D) the Prairie Provinces.
E) British Columbia.
D) the Prairie Provinces.
74. The invention in the late 1800s that changed the geography of cattle ranching was
A) the harvester.
B) barbed wire.
C) the steel tipped plow.
D) the John Deere tractor.
E) none of the above
B) barbed wire.
75. Pastoral nomads and livestock ranchers both
A) suffer from low profit margins.
B) have difficulty hiring seasonal workers.
C) require extensive knowledge of irrigation systems.
D) are in competition with alternative land uses.
E) operate most efficiently in similar climates.
E) operate most efficiently in similar climates.
76. Many feed fattening farms (feedlots) have located in the southeast and west of the United States because of
A) proximity to growing markets in the south and west.
B) less severe weather.
C) lack of union organization.
D) cheaper feed.
E) A and B only.
E) A and B only.
77. What advantages do cattle feedlots have over traditional methods of livestock ranching?
A) Feedlots combine a number of steps in the meat packing industry in one location.
B) Feedlots are more efficient at adding weight to cattle.
C) Feedlots reduce transportation costs of cattle prior to being slaughtered.
D) Feedlots reduce transportation costs of the finished product.
E) All of the above.
E) All of the above.
78. Mediterranean agricultural products are grown in
A) Chile.
B) the Central Valley of California.
C) southern Spain.
D) North Africa.
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
79 Mediterranean agriculture products include
A) grapes.
B) olives.
C) dates.
D) lemons.
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
80. The two most important crops grown in the Mediterranean region are
A) dates and lemons.
B) almonds and grapes.
C) grapes and olives.
D) olives and tomatoes.
E) wheat and olives
C) grapes and olives.
81. In Mediterranean agriculture farmers derive most of their income from
A) sheep and goats.
B) dairy products for various types of cheeses.
C) wheat grown for bread and pasta production.
D) fruits and vegetables.
E) tomatoes
D) fruits and vegetables.
82. Even though climatic conditions are suitable for wine production in North Africa and Southwest Asia, why is this form of agriculture not practiced in these regions?
A) Both areas need economic development to establish a wine industry.
B) Strict government regulations discourage development of a wine industry.
C) Lack of irrigation engineering is an impediment.
D) There is not a cultural tradition of consuming wine in these regions.
E) Desalination is still too costly for this type of economic activity.
D) There is not a cultural tradition of consuming wine in these regions.
83. Market gardening farms are located close to large urban areas because
A) expensive land costs force farmers to grow crops with a higher profit margin.
B) of the highly perishable nature of their crops.
C) transport costs are high due to special handling requirements.
D) farmers need large amounts of capital for specialized machinery.
E) all of the above.
E) all of the above.
84. Market gardening dominates in
A) New Jersey and Delaware.
B) parts of Florida.
C) the west coast of Michigan.
D) the Central Valley of California.
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
85. What is the best reason why market gardening farms grow highly perishable fruits and vegetables?
A) Favorable climate.
B) High soil fertility.
C) Farms are located close to urban centers.
D) Transportation costs are low.
E) Government subsidies make it possible.
C) Farms are located close to urban centers.
86. The technical definition of horticulture includes the cultivation of
A) flowers.
B) flowers and fruits.
C) flowers, fruits, and vegetables.
D) flowers and carnations.
E) flowers and nursery plants
C) flowers, fruits, and vegetables.
87. Horticulture could potentially include
A) Mediterranean agriculture.
B) market gardening.
C) truck farming.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.
D) all of the above.
88. Due to increased interregional migration, an increasing percent of vegetables in China are being produced
A) in urban plots.
B) in rural villages.
C) on collective farms in the countryside.
D) on commercial operations in the south.
E) on the suburban fringe of major metropolitan areas.
A) in urban plots.
89. Another name for truck farming is
A) specialty farming.
B) market gardening.
C) commercial gardening and fruit farming.
D) intensive commercial agriculture.
E) all of the above.
E) all of the above.
90. Many farmers in New England turned to specialty farming, such as growing mushrooms, asparagus, herbs, and nursery plants because
A) the climate is better for these types of operations.
B) depopulation of rural New England has reduced the customer base.
C) the “eat locally” movement has generated more demand for these products.
D) dairy farming has become less profitable due to lower milk prices per unit and increasing operating costs.
E) the increased use of refrigerated trucks has expanded the market area
D) dairy farming has become less profitable due to lower milk prices per unit and increasing operating costs.
91. Commercial agriculture practiced in the tropics and subtropics is called
A) intensive subsistence agriculture.
B) paddy rice farming.
C) plantation agriculture.
D) double cropping.
E) none of the above
C) plantation agriculture
92. This crop is often grown on plantations in the tropics and sub-tropics.
A) Sugarcane.
B) Palm oil.
C) Cocoa.
D) Tea.
E) All of the above.
E) All of the above.
93. Most plantation operations are found in
A) Latin America.
B) Sub-Saharan Africa.
C) Southeast Asia.
D) South Asia.
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
94. Globalization has impacted and changed agricultural practices with respect to plantation agriculture by
A) increased concentration of ownership from More Developed Countries (MDC) companies.
B) increased use of machinery.
C) displacing more workers.
D) increasing migration rates from rural to urban areas.
E) all of the above.
E) all of the above.
95. In upland areas where plantation agriculture is present, what are the two most common crops grown?
A) Bananas and tea.
B) Tea and sugar cane.
C) Tea and coffee.
D) Coffee and sugarcane.
E) Sugarcane and bananas.
C) Tea and coffee.
96. Legal crops such as coffee, tea, and tobacco grown on plantations in the tropics for export to More Developed Countries (MDCs) are commonly referred to as
A) luxury crops.
B) perishable crops.
C) specialty crops.
D) export crops.
E) none of the above.
A) luxury crops.
97. Which of the following is not considered a luxury crop?
A) Coffee.
B) Tea.
C) Banana.
D) Cacoa.
E) Tobacco
C) Banana.
98. The main difference between coffee and tea is that
A) coffee is consumed where it is produced.
B) tea is consumed where it is produced.
C) coffee is grown in upland areas in the tropics and subtropics.
D) tea is grown in low-lying areas in humid continental climates.
E) A and B only.
B) tea is consumed where it is produced.
99. How have globalization and improved transportation links changed the geography of production areas for products such as apples, grapes, and fresh cut flowers?
A) Farmers will seek out areas with the lowest production costs.
B) North American farmers no longer have a competitive advantage all year.
C) Production areas have become more competitive in Least Developed Countries (LDCs).
D) Southern hemisphere producers have increased production of these items.
E) All of the above.
E) All of the above.
100. How has containerization changed the geography of linkages between production areas and location of consumers?
A) Due to economies of scale, production areas have shifted to many Least Developed Countries (LDCs).
B) The Suez and Panama canals are less important because of containerization.
C) Containerization has made long distance trade more efficient.
D) Containerization has made long distance trade more profitable.
E) All of the above.
E) All of the above.
101. According to the von Thunen model, what costs does a commercial farmer consider when deciding what crops to plant?
A) Transportation costs.
B) Cost of land.
C) Transaction costs.
D) Cost of externalities.
E) A and B only.
E) A and B only.
102. According to the von Thunen model, what type of agricultural practice would locate in the outer most concentric ring?
A) Dairy.
B) Forestry.
C) Grazing.
D) Mixed crop and livestock.
E) Horticulture.
C) Grazing.
103. Why did von Thunen include a forestry ring in his model of agricultural land use?
A) Wood was quickly becoming a scarce resource.
B) Wood was used for construction purposes and heating.
C) Wood is heavy and therefore expensive to transport.
D) Wood was a sustainable product.
E) B and C only.
E) B and C only.
104. According to the von Thunen model, the first ring is used for
A) dairy.
B) forestry.
C) mixed crop and livestock.
D) crop rotation.
E) grain farming.
A) dairy.
105. Using von Thunen’s model as a basis for analysis, assume New York City is the single market for the United States, market gardening would be located in
A) the upper Midwest.
B) California.
C) Pacific Northwest.
D) New England.
E) southeastern states.
E) southeastern states.
106. Using von Thunen’s model as a basis for analysis, assume New York City is the single market for the United States, dairy agriculture would dominate in
A) New England and upstate New York.
B) southeastern states.
C) California.
D) the Pacific Northwest.
E) none of the above.
A) New England and upstate New York.
107. Using von Thunen’s model as a basis for analysis, assume New York City is the single market for the United States, mixed crop and livestock agriculture would be located in
A) New England.
B) the Midwest.
C) the Pacific Northwest.
D) southeastern states.
E) Great Plains.
B) the Midwest.
108. Using von Thunen’s model as a basis for analysis, assume London, England, and Paris, France, is the single market for Europe. Dairy agriculture would be located in
A) southern England.
B) Scandinavia.
C) southern Spain.
D) the steppes of Russia.
E) Hungary.
A) southern England.
109. Using von Thunen’s model as a basis for analysis, assume London, England, and Paris, France, is the single market for Europe. Extensive grain farming would take place in
A) southern England.
B) Mediterranean France.
C) Italy.
D) the steppes of Russia.
E) the Benelux countries
D) the steppes of Russia.
110. von Thunen’s agricultural land use model assumes
A) there is a flat isotopic plane.
B) there are uniform soils across the landscape.
C) there are no physical features present, such as rivers or mountains.
D) all goods use the same form of transportation.
E) all of the above.
E) all of the above.
111. The single most important factor contributing to rural land use patterns for most of the Great Plains in the United States is a result of the
A) township and range land survey system.
B) metes and bounds land property division method.
C) physical geography of the region.
D) extensive river systems.
E) capitalist economic system.
A) township and range land survey system
112. All of the following are areas in the United States most susceptible to losing prime agricultural land except
A) California’s Central Valley.
B) the Chicago-Milwaukee-Madison triangle.
C) coastal California.
D) South Florida.
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
113. Area(s) of the world traditionally known for their circular rural land use patterns include
A) Northern Germany.
B) Sub-Saharan Africa
C) East Asia.
D) South America.
E) A and B only.
E) A and B only.
114. Today circular rural settlements are most commonly associated with
A) Sub-Saharan Africa.
B) Southeast Asia.
C) Latin America.
D) Central America.
E) the Middle East
A) Sub-Saharan Africa
115. The linear agricultural land use pattern commonly found in Quebec and Louisiana is
A) the long lot system.
B) the range and township land survey system.
C) the metes and bounds land ownership method.
D) a result of the Enclosure Movement.
E) none of the above.
A) the long lot system
116. Clustered rural settlements are most commonly associated with
A) the mid-Atlantic region.
B) New England.
C) the lower Mississippi Valley.
D) the Southeast.
E) the Ohio River Valley.
B) New England.
117. The land division system most responsible for dispersed rural settlements in many parts of the United States is the
A) long lot system.
B) township and range system.
C) metes and bounds system.
D) enclosure movement.
E) none of the above
B) township and range system
118. Township and range land division system most closely resembles what type of geometric pattern on the landscape?
A) Linear.
B) Circular.
C) Square.
D) Rectangular.
E) None of the above
C) Square.
119. The region of the world that benefited the least from the Green Revolution was
A) South Asia.
B) East Asia.
C) South America.
D) Sub-Saharan Africa.
E) Central America.
D) Sub-Saharan Africa.
120. Which of the following are negative consequences of the Green Revolution in India?
A) It increased environmental damage due to the increased use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers.
B) It increased interregional migration.
C) It increased the gap between wealthy and poor farmers.
D) All of the above.
E) A and B only
D) All of the above.
121. Even though post World War II population growth rates hit record numbers, what factor(s) prevented Malthus’s predictions from becoming a reality in Least Developed Countries (LDCs)?
A) The Green Revolution doubled and tripled crop yields in many developing countries.
B) Massive relief on the part of the United States prevented worldwide famine.
C) Technological advancements increased yields throughout the world.
D) High yield varieties (HYVs) increased yields in many parts of the world.
E) All of the above.
E) All of the above.
122. This type of business practice significantly reduces the commodity chain for an agricultural product such as coffee or tea.
A) Fair trade movement.
B) Sustainable agriculture.
C) Organic farming.
D) Integrated management.
E) Wholesale shopping.
A) Fair trade movement.
123. The trend whereby large corporations buy and control many different steps in a food-processing industry is commonly referred to as
A) agribusiness.
B) commercial agriculture.
C) biotechnical revolution.
D) industrial agriculture.
E) all of the above
A) agribusiness.
124. The two most widely used and distributed Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO) crops are
A) corn and wheat.
B) wheat and millet.
C) soybeans and wheat.
D) soybeans and corn.
E) corn and flax.
D) soybeans and corn.
125. Many countries in Europe and Africa are reluctant to import Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO) produced foods from the United States because
A) they could severely alter local agricultural economies.
B) they could possibly crossbreed with domestic varieties.
C) they would cause economic dependence on US corporations.
D) they are considered less nutritious.
E) all of the above.
E) all of the above.
1. According to the Human Development Index (HDI) which of the following would be considered a social measurement of development?
A) Literacy rate.
B) Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
C) Energy production per capita. D) Birth rate.
E) Life expectancy.
A) Literacy rate.
2. Which of the following demographic characteristics of development would not be typical of a less developed country in 2008?
A) Low Crude Birth Rate (CBR).
B) Life expectancy of only 60 years.
C) Natural increase of less than 2%.
D) Twenty-five percent of the population below age 15.
E) High infant mortality rate of 57 deaths per 1000 births
A) Low Crude Birth Rate (CBR).
3. The Great Big Tennis Shoe Company makes its shoes with leather from a company in Argentina, the shoelaces and thread come from companies in the United States, and the rubber for the soles from Indonesia. The shoes are assembled in factories in China and the shoes are ultimately sold in Europe and the United States. All of the following
factors help explain why this global assembly line process occurs except
A) improvements in data communication.
B) relatively low transportation costs due to containerization.
C) decreasing incomes in the developed regions of the world
D) relatively low labor costs in different regions of the world.
E) the durability of the good being processed
C) decreasing incomes in the developed regions of the world
4. Which of the following countries in 2008 has the largest percent of its workforce engaged in the tertiary or service sector?
A) Peru.
B) Nigeria.
C) China.
D) Egypt.
E) Germany.
E) Germany.
5. A peasant in rural China is most likely employed in which sector of the economy?
A) Primary.
B) Quaternary.
C) Quinary.
D) Secondary.
E) Tertiary.
A) Primary
6. Which set of data best describes the overall structure of a highly developed country’s
workforce in 2008 (% of workforce engaged in each sector)? A) Primary 75%, secondary 15%, tertiary 10%.
B) Primary 25%, secondary 50%, tertiary 25%.
C) Primary 10%, secondary 30%, tertiary 60%.
D) Primary 50%, secondary 25%, tertiary 25%.
E) Primary 33%, secondary 33%, tertiary 34%.
C) Primary 10%, secondary 30%, tertiary 60%.
7. On a global scale, in which of the following sectors do most people work?
A) Primary.
B) Secondary.
C) Quaternary.
D) Quinary.
E) Tertiary.
A) Primary
8. In the countries of China, Vietnam and India which of the following sectors of the economy is losing the most people?
A) Primary.
B) Secondary.
C) Quaternary.
D) Quinary.
E) Tertiary.
A) Primary
9. The largest sector of the economy in Postindustrial countries is
A) primary.
B) secondary. C) quaternary. D) quinary.
E) tertiary.
E) tertiary
10. Which of the following economic sectors is least likely to occur in the core area of a country?
A) Primary.
B) Secondary.
C) Quaternary.
D) Quinary.
E) Tertiary.
A) Primary
11. Using a global scale, which of the following regions would not be considered a major manufacturing region during the 20th century?
A) Eastern China.
B) Northeast United States. C) Western Europe.
D) Southern India.
E) Eastern Europe
D) Southern India.
12. Which of the following factors does not help explain why steel manufacturing facilities in the United States have increasingly been located in a coastal city location? A) The decreasing cost of transporting iron ore.
B) Scrap metal is widely available in city locales.
C) A large demand for steel exists in large coastal cities around the world. D) Cheap sources of iron ore from foreign countries.
E) There is a shortage of iron ore in the interior United States.
E) There is a shortage of iron ore in the interior United States
13. Which of the following factors helps to explain why automobile manufacturing facilities are being built in the Southern United States as opposed to the traditional locations of Michigan and other states in the Midwest?
A) Increasing cost of automobile maintenance.
B) Workers in the South are less likely to join a union.
C) Increasing competition from cars produced in China.
D) The largest population clusters in the US are in the South.
E) Hybrid technology exists in greater supplies in the South than other regions of the US.
B) Workers in the South are less likely to join a union.
14. Which of the following cities is the highest order financial center?
A) Singapore.
B) London.
C) Sidney.
D) Lagos.
E) Chicago.
B) London
15. Which of the following regions is not considered a major agglomeration of high technology development?
A) Northern California.
B) Bangalore, India.
C) Dallas and Austin, Texas.
D) Beijing, China.
E) Athens, Greece.
E) Athens, Greece.
16. Which of the following is not a locational tendency of high tech industries? A) Proximity to a major university.
B) Access to venture capital and entrepreneurs. C) Areas with high quality of life reputations.
D) Inner-city, downtown locations close to central business districts.
E) Availability of high quality communication and transportation facilities.
D) Inner-city, downtown locations close to central business districts.
17. Which of the following best describes the overall global trend in agriculture?
A) The percent of people working in agriculture is declining and the productivity of farming is decreasing.
B) The percent of people working in agriculture is declining and the productivity of farming is increasing.
C) The percent of people working in agriculture is increasing
D) The percent of people working in agriculture is increasing and productivity of farming is decreasing.
E) The percent of people working in agriculture is increasing and productivity of farming is increasing.
B) The percent of people working in agriculture is declining and the productivity of farming is increasing.
18. Many United States high tech companies have been outsourcing many of their technical support and other tertiary jobs to which of the following countries?
A) India
B) China
C) South Africa
D) Saudi Arabia
E) Germany
A) India
19. Applying the Core-Periphery model, which of the following best describes the classification of South Korea, Taiwan and Singapore?
A) Core.
B) Downward transition. C) Periphery.
D) Resource frontier.
E) Semi-periphery.
E) Semi-periphery.
20. Which of the following is typically not a characteristic of Least Developed Countries
(LDCs)?
A) Extreme disparities in income exist between rich and poor. B) An increasing percentage of the population living in cities.
C) Large portions of the population engaged in agricultural activity.
D) Large portions of the population are highly skilled and educated.
E) The standard of living has generally been rising.
D) Large portions of the population are highly skilled and educated.
21. Which of the following is an economic system with relatively simple technology on which people produce most or all of the goods to satisfy their family’s needs?
A) Capitalist.
B) Mixed.
C) Planned.
D) Subsistence.
E) Market.
D) Subsistence.
22. Which of the following regions gets the highest percentage of its Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) from agriculture?
A) Central America.
B) Central Africa.
C) Western Europe.
D) Australia.
E) South America
B) Central Africa.
23. Which of the following regions has the highest concentration of a subsistent economic system?
A) Central America.
B) Central Africa.
C) Western Europe.
D) Australia.
E) South America
B) Central Africa.
24. Which of the following regions accounted for nearly 80% of the industrial output of the early 1800s Industrial Revolution?
A) Western Europe.
B) Eastern China.
C) Unites States. D) Australia.
E) South America.
A) Western Europe.
25. During the 1800s Industrial Revolution, the most important fuel source for manufacturing was
A) oil.
B) coal.
C) nuclear.
D) hydro-electric.
E) solar.
B) coal.
26. Which of the following is considered the place of origin of the Industrial Revolution?
A) United Kingdom.
B) France.
C) United States.
D) Belgium.
E) Germany.
A) United Kingdom
Revolution except
A) Hierarchical diffusion - The British Empire spread industrial concepts throughout many world cities and regions.
B) Contagious diffusion – manufacturing ideas and concepts spread from England to nearby European countries.
C) Stimulus diffusion – Many American and European companies modified ideas and concepts from England and created new ways of manufacturing.
D) Reverse hierarchical – manufacturing ideas and concepts from the outlying rural areas of the British Empire spread back to England and stimulated the Industrial Revolution.
E) Diffused to areas with common locational factors including the availability of coal,
access to a water port, proximity to a labor supply and available capital
D) Reverse hierarchical – manufacturing ideas and concepts from the outlying rural areas of the British Empire spread back to England and stimulated the Industrial Revolution.
28. Which of the following countries is not a major producer of steel?
A) China.
B) Japan.
C) United States.
D) South Korea.
E) Nigeria.
E) Nigeria.
29. Which of the following American cities is not located in a major manufacturing region?
A) New York.
B) Chicago.
C) Atlanta.
D) Seattle
. E) Miami.
E) Miami.
30. Which of the following does not accurately depict the location characteristics of manufacturing in Russia?
A) Generally concentrated in the western portions of Russia. B) Located along transportation routes, especially railroads.
C) The Ural Mountains vast amount of natural resources both supply and fuel factories with materials necessary to manufacture goods.
D) The vast amount of fast moving rivers and large population create an agglomeration of industries near Lake Baikal.
E) A large manufacturing area is concentrated near Moscow because of its market,
transportation connections, and its centrality.
D) The vast amount of fast moving rivers and large population create an agglomeration of industries near Lake Baikal.
31. Which of the following areas is not considered a large manufacturing region in China?
A) Hong Kong – Guangdong – Southern. B) Shanghai – Chang – East.
C) Beijing – North.
D) Lhasa – Tibet – West.
E) Shenyang – Northeast.
D) Lhasa – Tibet – West.
32. Which of the following areas is considered a peripheral region within China? A) Hong Kong – Guangdong – Southern.
B) Shanghai – Chang – East. C) Beijing – Northern.
D) Lhasa – Tibet – West.
E) Shenyang – Northeast
D) Lhasa – Tibet – West.
33. Which of the following best explains why many companies continue to locate factories in traditional manufacturing regions like the northeast United States and Western Europe?
A) Low labor costs and loose environmental laws.
B) Large pool of skilled labor and quick delivery to large markets.
C) Stable government and low labor costs.
D) Weak unions and stringent environmental laws.
E) Decreasing global transportation costs and rising labor costs in China.
B) Large pool of skilled labor and quick delivery to large markets.
34. Which of the following industries is most likely to outsource jobs to another country because of slight increases in labor costs?
A) Steel manufacturing.
B) Automobile assembly plant.
C) Textile plant.
D) High-tech research facility.
E) Milk dairy.
C) Textile plant.
35. Which of the following situational factors best explains why automobile manufacturing and assembly plants continue to locate in the interior United States? A) Lower labor costs than in coastal locations with strong environmental laws.
B) Relatively less expensive site costs and quick delivery to large markets.
C) Weight gain industries can locate further from their market area.
D) Weak unions and stringent environmental laws.
E) Decreasing global transportation costs and rising labor costs in China.
B) Relatively less expensive site costs and quick delivery to large markets
36. Which of the following factors does not explain why automobile manufacturing and assembly plants continue to close or relocate facilities in the northern United States?
A) Lower labor costs in other U.S. regions.
B) Cars are increasingly made with plastic and aluminum materials, which changes the optimal location of assembly plants.
C) The United States population center continues to migrate south and west thereby increasing the transportation costs of production in the north.
D) Weak unions in the north and shortage of skilled labor.
E) Increasing competition from international companies locating plants in the United
States.
D) Weak unions in the north and shortage of skilled labor
37. Which stage of the classic Demographic Transition Model (DTM) is most associated
with the industrialization of a country’s economy?
A) Stage I.
B) Stage II.
C) Stage III.
D) Stage IV.
E) Stage V.
C) Stage III
38. The industrialization of a country’s economy often has which the following large-
scale effects on a country’s demographic patterns?
A) People migrate from the cities into rural areas seeking new jobs in the primary sector.
This migration leads to a decrease in death rate for the country.
B) Individuals migrate to new industrial or urban areas in search of jobs. Over time the death rate increases for the country because of the high risk jobs.
C) Families migrate to cities seeking jobs in the secondary sector and because of the increased wages, birth rate increases for the country.
D) Mechanized farming replaces many labor-intensive jobs, inducing people to move to new industrial and urban areas. Over time, the country’s birth rate decreases as the country industrializes.
E) Industrialization has very little effect on the migration of a country’s population but
does have the dramatic effect of increasing the death rate.
D) Mechanized farming replaces many labor-intensive jobs, inducing people to move to new industrial and urban areas. Over time, the country’s birth rate decreases as the country industrializes.
39. Prior to the Industrial Revolution, which of the following best describes manufacturing?
A) Large factories located in cities were owned by corporations.
B) Multinational corporations create a global assembly line of production.
C) Individual families produced goods by hand or on individual spinning wheels.
D) Mechanized assembly line with workers monitoring the quality of the product.
E) Manufacturing did not exist prior to the Industrial Revolution.
C) Individual families produced goods by hand or on individual spinning wheels
40. Which of the following descriptions is least accurate?
A) Post-Fordist workers often work on equal terms and conditions with managers. B) Fordist production requires mainly low skill labor.
C) Post-Fordist production plants often produce a greater variety of goods that meet the needs of niche markets.
D) Fordist production workers often perform a specific specialized task over and over on the line.
E) Post-Fordist production emphasizes the importance of classical economic theory as measured in distance cost as opposed to time cost.
E) Post-Fordist production emphasizes the importance of classical economic theory as measured in distance cost as opposed to time cost
40. Which of the following descriptions is least accurate?
A) Post-Fordist workers often work on equal terms and conditions with managers. B) Fordist production requires mainly low skill labor.
C) Post-Fordist production plants often produce a greater variety of goods that meet the needs of niche markets.
D) Fordist production workers often perform a specific specialized task over and over on the line.
E) Post-Fordist production emphasizes the importance of classical economic theory as measured in distance cost as opposed to time cost.
41. Which of the following regions has the largest percent of the world’s petroleum
reserves?
A) Southeast Asia.
B) Eastern Europe.
C) Central America.
D) Southwest Asia.
E) North America.
D) Southwest Asia.
42. All of the following are true of fossil fuels except
A) they are distributed unevenly around the globe. B) the supply of fossil fuels is finite.
C) wealthy countries consume greater amounts of fossil fuels than poorer countries.
D) the wealthiest countries have the greatest deposits of fossil fuels.
E) the cost of fossil fuels will likely rise as global demand increases and reserves
decline.
D) the wealthiest countries have the greatest deposits of fossil fuels
43. Computer technical support jobs are increasingly being outsourced to India for all of the following reasons except
A) large English speaking population in India.
B) strong telecommunications infrastructure in parts of India. C) lower wages for workers than the United States.
D) poor training of high-tech students in the United States.
E) increasing population of high skilled labor in India
D) poor training of high-tech students in the United States
44. Computer technical support jobs are increasingly being outsourced to India, because of improvements in telecommunication technology. Which term best exemplifies this trend?
A) Space-time compression.
B) Agglomeration.
C) Absolute distance. D) Multiplier effect.
E) Non-governmental organizations (NGO).
A) Space-time compression
45. Based on the concept of Wallerstein’s world-systems analysis, which of the following countries best fits the description of semi-periphery in the early 21st century? A) Afghanistan.
B) China.
C) Cuba.
D) Germany.
E) Nigeria.
B) China.
46. Based on the concept of Wallerstein’s world-systems analysis, which of the following countries best fits the description of core in the early 21st century?
A) Afghanistan. B) China.
C) Cuba.
D) Germany.
E) Nigeria.
D) Germany.
47. Based on the concept of core-periphery relationships, which of the following regions of the United States best fits the description of periphery in the early 21st century?
A) Alaska.
B) Colorado.
C) New York.
D) California.
E) Illinois.
A) Alaska
48. Based on the concept of core-periphery relationships, which of the following regions of Europe best fits the description of periphery in the early 21st century?
A) United Kingdom. B) France.
C) Germany.
D) Spain.
E) Netherlands
D) Spain.
49. According to Wallerstein’s world-systems analysis, which of the following is the eventual outcome of the theory?
A) Permanent division of wealthy core countries and poor periphery countries. B) Creation of one giant super core with the rest of the world as a periphery.
C) Evolution towards multiple cores that exchange goods, services and resources.
D) Current system of cores and periphery exists with the periphery becoming
increasingly financially dependent on the core.
E) Devolution of core, replaced by multiple semi-periphery regions supported by the resources of nearby periphery regions
C) Evolution towards multiple cores that exchange goods, services and resources
50. Which of the following development schools of thought advocates that countries proceed through progressive stages of economic structural change? Less developed countries should follow the path that Western Europe and North America took during the Industrial Revolution.
A) Core-periphery.
B) Dependency.
C) Modernization.
D) Neoliberal Counterrevolution.
E) Sustainable Development.
C) Modernization.
51. Which of the following development schools of thought advocates that the dynamic between highly developed and developing countries, permanently keeps less developed countries at an economic disadvantage?
A) Appropriation.
B) Dependency.
C) Modernization.
D) Neoliberal Counterrevolution.
E) Sustainable Development
B) Dependency
Which of the following development schools of thought advocates the best strategies for development are the use of micro loans for women and the poor, small-scale community based projects, and resource conservation?
A) Appropriation. B) Dependency.
C) Modernization.
D) Neoliberal Counterrevolution.
E) Sustainable Development.
E) Sustainable Development.
Which of the following development schools of thought followed by the Chinese in the 1980’s advocates that counties who wish to improve their economy should privatize industries, encourage foreign investment and move towards free trade?
A) Appropriation. B) Dependency.
C) Modernization.
D) Neoliberal Counterrevolution.
E) Sustainable Development
D) Neoliberal Counterrevolution.
54. Based on a Harvard Institute study, which attempted to quantify differences in national economic development. Which of the following set of factors are common in highly developed countries of the world?
A) Low latitude ecological zones and peripheral global locations.
B) Low latitude ecological zones, peripheral global locations, and rules of law that prohibit corruption and breach of contract.
C) Large and expanding population, rules of law that prohibit corruption and breach of contract, and market based economies.
D) Low latitude ecological zones, rules of law that prohibit corruption and breach of contract, and market based economies.
E) Rules of law that prohibit corruption and breach of contract, and market based economies.
E) Rules of law that prohibit corruption and breach of contract, and market based economies
55. Not all regions of a country will develop at the same rate or reap the benefits of a country’s economic development. Which of the following does not explain whyWestern China has not developed as quickly as Eastern China?
A) Eastern China is better situated to take advantage of the global trade economy.
B) Western China lacks resources used for manufacturing.
C) Greater political power is located in Eastern China.
D) Larger labor supplies can be found in the east.
E) Western China’s physical geography creates more challenges for transportation, agriculture and industry than in Eastern China.
B) Western China lacks resources used for manufacturing
56. Which of the following industries would most likely be market oriented?
A) Windshields.
B) Threshing wheat.
C) Copper smelting.
D) French fry production.
E) Fish processing
A) Windshields
57. Which of the following industries would most likely be resource oriented?
A) Making concrete.
B) Frfeash baked bread
C) Paper production.
D) Bottling soft drinks.
E) Airplane production
C) Paper production.
Weber’s least cost location theory uses all of the following factors to determine optimum location of a manufacturing facility except
A) labor cost.
B) transportation cost.
C) agglomeration effects.
D) relative location of resources and markets.
E) global division of labor
E) global division of labor
Which of the following forms of transportation would be most effective in delivering coal from a mine in Casper, Wyoming to a plant creating electricity in Houston, Texas? A) Airplane.
B) Truck.
C) Railroad.
D) Pipeline.
E) Intermodal containers
C) Railroad.
60. The most important transportation improvement of the late 20th and early 21st century impacting international trade is
A) increased speed and efficiency of airplanes.
B) improvements in intermodal containerization.
C) decreased reliance on transportation using fossil fuels.
D) improved major highway systems in United States and Europe.
E) faster and more efficient trains in Europe and the United States.
B) improvements in intermodal containerization
61. Which of the following is the best example of a bulk reducing industry? A) Automobile assembly.
B) Copper mining.
C) Toy manufacturing.
D) Doctor.
E) Soft-drink bottling
B) Copper mining
62. Which of the following is the best example of a bulk gaining industry?
A) Paper production.
B) Copper mining.
C) Data-processing.
D) Medical equipment plant.
E) Automobile assembly.
E) Automobile assembly
Based on classical optimal location theory, which of the following best describes the lowest cost location in the bulk gaining industry of soft-drink bottling?
A) Water and glass are ubiquitous but heavy so production should be relatively close to the market in order to reduce transportation costs.
B) Soft-drinks should be bottled in a few locations in close proximity to syrup
production in order to maintain control of the taste. Proximity to market relative to product control is not as important of a cost factor.
C) Bottling should occur in less developed countries because of low labor costs and declining transportation costs.
D) Since bottling soft-drinks is a technology intensive process the bottling should occur in the city or region with the most skilled labor.
E) Bottling processes should be located in rural locations because mechanized farming is displacing farm workers.
A) Water and glass are ubiquitous but heavy so production should be relatively close to the market in order to reduce transportation costs
In the context of industrial location, which of the following best describes the concept of site?
A) The unique characteristics of a location including the factors of labor, capital and land.
B) The location of an industry in relation to other industries.
C) A force that attracts industries to a specific location.
D) An area with advanced technology and culture.
E) The number of jobs that an industry will create in a region
A) The unique characteristics of a location including the factors of labor, capital and land
n the context of industrial location, which of the following best describes the concept of situation?
A) The number of jobs that an industry will create in a region.
B) The location of an industry in relation to other industries.
C) A force that attracts industries to a specific location.
D) An area with advanced technology and culture.
E) The location of an industry in relation to resources used in production including its market.
E) The location of an industry in relation to resources used in production including its market.
Which of the following statements is most true today relating to the situational factors of business?
A) Situational factors of the 21st century are essentially the same as the 20th century.
B) Changes in transportation, manufacturing techniques and markets have changed situational considerations in the 21st century.
C) While situational factors are important, the overall global economy is the most
important factor in industry today.
D) The situational factors for different industries vary little between industries.
E) Changes in technology put all industries and jobs in a country at risk of being out- sourced overseas.
B) Changes in transportation, manufacturing techniques and markets have changed situational considerations in the 21st century
A clustering of rubber tire and windshield producers near automobile assembly plants is best explained by the benefits of
A) productivity.
B) range.
C) agglomeration.
D) space-time compression.
E) deglommeration.
C) agglomeration
A community is considering providing incentives to attract new industries. Which of the following industries would have the largest multiplier effect?
A) Call center for international company. B) Retail mall.
C) Auto sales lot.
D) Regional soft-drink bottling facility.
E) Local medical clinic.
D) Regional soft-drink bottling facility
Which of the following development strategies would be consistent with Rostow’s
preconditions for take-off stage?
A) Build hydroelectric dam and roads.
B) Debt reduction in order to increase income and currency stability.
C) Increase international trade of manufactured goods.
D) Increase tariffs on trade in order to keep out competition.
E) Exploit comparative advantage by trading with poorer countries.
A) Build hydroelectric dam and roads
This development strategy encourages countries to spread its investments equally across all sectors of its economy and regions andencourages high tariffs and measures to protect new emerging industries. The main goal is to reduce poverty.
A) Rostow Modernization Theory.
B) Sustainable Development.
C) Self-Sufficiency.
D) Devolution.
E) GravityModel.
C) Self-Sufficiency
The Human Development Index (HDI) was derived with which of the following purposes in mind?
A) Create a method of measuring development that focuses on the economic elements of income and Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
B) Create a method of measuring development that attempts to include social and economic elements.
C) Create a method of measuring development that focuses on social elements of literacy
and politics.
D) Create a method of measuring development that includes all elements of development. E) Create a completely objective ranking of countries based on economic conditions within a country.
B) Create a method of measuring development that attempts to include social and economic elements
72. The Human Development Index (HDI) uses four statistical measurements. Which of the following lists are statistics used to measure the HDI?
A) Gross National Product (GNP), growth rate, Natural Increase Rate (NIR), and literacy. B) Purchasing power, access to safe drinking water, Crude Birth Rate (CBR), and type of government.
C) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per capita, life expectancy, literacy rate, and HIV
infections per capita.
D) Per capita Gross Domestic Product (GDP), life expectancy, literacy rate, and average years of education.
E) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per capita, infant mortality, literacy rate, and natural
increase.
D) Per capita Gross Domestic Product (GDP), life expectancy, literacy rate, and average years of education
73. Which of the following regions has the lowest overall Human Development Index
(HDI) ranking?
A) Sub-Saharan Africa.
B) Latin America.
C) East Asia.
D) East Europe. E) Middle East.
A) Sub-Saharan Africa
Which of the following countries has the highest overall Human Development Index
(HDI) ranking?
A) Democratic Republic of the Congo.
B) Argentina.
C) China.
D) Egypt. E) India
B) Argentina
75. What was the name of the report in 1980 that created a map showing the relative wealth of the countries north of the line compared to the countries south of the line? A) United Nations (UN) Report on Human Development.
B) International Law of the Sea and its Effects.
C) Brandt Report.
D) CIA Fact-book Report on Development.
E) Cairo Conference Report on Population Impacts.
C) Brandt Report
76. The North/South split of development as shown by the Brandt line generally asserts what factor?
A) Northern countries are poorer than Southern countries.
B) Western countries have greater influence and power than Eastern countries.
C) Northern countries are wealthier than southern countries.
D) At one point in history northern and southern countries were very similar in
development but because of political differences each region proceeded differently. E) Political theory explains why Sub-Saharan Africa is politically unstable.
C) Northern countries are wealthier than southern countries.
77. Which of the following regions in the late 20th and early 21st century had the largest increases in GDP per capita?
A) Western Europe.
B) Eastern Europe.
C) East Asia.
D) South Africa.
E) Middle East.
C) East Asia.
78. Which of the following cities in the Middle East during the late 20th and early 21st
century became a center for capital, banking and international trade? A) Cairo.
B) Baghdad. C) Mecca.
D) Dubai.
E) Tehran.
D) Dubai.
79. What is the term for places of economic activity deliberately organized around one or more high growth industries?
A) Industrialization. B) Core.
C) Growth pole.
D) Conurbation.
E) Heartland Theory.
C) Growth pole.
80. Which of the following are considered propulsive industries for the United States in the 21st century?
A) Agriculture.
B) Biotechnology.
C) Banking/finance.
D) Steel production.
E) Ship building.
B) Biotechnology.
Which of the following best describes the objective of ecotourism?
A) Transform and exploit the natural beauty of an area into a tourist destination.
B) Create an environmentally-friendly tourist destination in an attempt to maintain the unique qualities of the region.
C) Create a small-scale representation of an environment to replace the previous
environment which existed prior to tourism.
D) Develop the economy of an area with tourist attractions.
E) Develop a tourist economy based on large theme parks, hotels and restaurants that require a transformation of the local environment
B) Create an environmentally-friendly tourist destination in an attempt to maintain the unique qualities of the region.
81. Which of the following is the best definition of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
A) The value of all goods and service produced within a country in a given year.
B) The value of all goods and service that the citizens of a county produced in a given year regardless of where they live.
C) The income earned by a country’s people.
D) Total household, business and government income minus taxes.
E) The value of a country’s exports minus their imports.
A) The value of all goods and service produced within a country in a given year.
82. Which of the following is the best definition of Gross National Product (GNP)? A) The value of all goods and service produced within a country in a given year.
B) The value of all goods and service that the citizens of a county produced in a given year regardless of where they live.
C) The income earned by a country’s people.
D) Total household, business and government income minus taxes.
E) The value of a country’s exports minus their imports
B) The value of all goods and service that the citizens of a county produced in a given year regardless of where they live.
83. When economic development within a country occurs not all regions of a country or region will benefit equally; in fact some regions may be negatively affected by another region’s development. Which of the following terms best describes this negative situation?
A) Animate power. B) GravityModel. C) Filtering effects.
D) Backwash effects.
E) Potential reserve.
D) Backwash effects.
84. Rostow’s economic development model indicates that before high level economic development can occur,
A) countries must have extensive resources and be part of the world’s free market economy.
B) countries must develop industries that are sustainable and do not negatively affect the environment.
C) primary sector employment must decrease and agricultural output increase.
D) countries must receive foreign aid or investment in large quantities in order to achieve large-scale technology transfer.
E) countries must pass through predictable and sequential stages.
E) countries must pass through predictable and sequential stages.
Which of the following is the last stage of development of Rostow’s model?
A) Drive to Maturity.
B) High Mass Consumption.
C) Preconditions for Take-off.
D) Take-off.
E) Traditional Society.
B) High Mass Consumption.
85. Which of the following is the last stage of development of Rostow’s model?
A) Drive to Maturity.
B) High Mass Consumption.
C) Preconditions for Take-off.
D) Take-off.
E) Traditional Society.
B) High Mass Consumption.
86. The textile industry in the United States has been more susceptible to out-sourcing than has the automobile assembly industry for which of the following reasons?
A) Auto assembly is more of a market-oriented industry and textiles are cheaper to transport than cars.
B) Textiles are cheaper to transport than cars and stronger worker laws are common in less developed countries.
C) Auto assembly is more of a market-oriented industry, textiles are cheaper to transport than cars, and low cost, low skill labor is often available overseas.
D) Available low cost, low skill labor overseas, stronger worker laws in less developed
countries, and lack of workers in US willing to work in textile industry contribute to the out-sourcing.
E) Textiles are cheaper to transport than cars, available low cost, low skill labor overseas, and stronger worker laws in less developed countries make it easier
C) Auto assembly is more of a market-oriented industry, textiles are cheaper to transport than cars, and low cost, low skill labor is often available overseas.
87. Just-in-time manufacturing has had which of the following impacts on the locational factors of production?
A) Requires larger sites in order to store the parts before assembly.
B) Allows companies to locate further away from other producers thereby lowering land costs.
C) Reinforces agglomeration of related industries.
D) Encourages consumers to purchase products on-line.
E) Encourages companies to outsource production.
C) Reinforces agglomeration of related industries
88. Just-in-time production is most associated with which manufacturing process? A) Fordist.
B) Assembly line.
C) Flexible production.
D) Positive externalities.
E) Tertiary.
C) Flexible production.
89. Most of the products that are produced in Maquiladoras are mainly sent to consumers in which country?
A) Mexico.
B) China.
C) India.
D) United States.
E) Brazil.
D) United States.
90. Maquiladoras provide which of the following benefits to producers?
A) Duty-free production in a low wage country.
B) Allows access to high skill labor markets.
C) Production area is closer to the market than traditional manufacturing areas in the US. D) Concentrates production in the highest order cities.
E) Levels the economic playing field for factories located in America and China
A) Duty-free production in a low wage country.
91. What is the term for small areas within a country that are granted favorable investment and trading conditions in order to attract industries?
A) Derelict landscape.
B) Export-Processing Zone (EPZ).
C) Non-Governmental Organization (NGO).
D) Import Substitution Region (ISR). E) Columbian Exchange.
B) Export-Processing Zone (EPZ).
92. The rise of China economically has had which of the following impacts on the global economy?
A) Increased prices for consumers of manufactured goods.
B) Reinforced Europe’s role in manufacturing.
C) Lowered the price of consumer goods on a global scale.
D) Caused world leaders to divest in China and Asia.
E) China’s labor market has increase the cost of production.
C) Lowered the price of consumer goods on a global scale
93. Which of the following was not a policy the Chinese used to improve their economic standing in the world?
A) Created special economic zones to encourage production.
B) Followed an open door policy allowing trade with the world.
C) Increasingly moved towards a communist economic system in the early 21st century.
D) Investing in research and cutting edge industries of bio-technology and computer
industry.
E) Encouraged foreign investment aimed at improving China’s domestic industries and markets.
C) Increasingly moved towards a communist economic system in the early 21st century.
94. The wealthiest economic region in East Asia today is
A) China.
B) South Korea.
C) Japan.
D) Philippines.
E) Taiwan.
C) Japan.
95. How did Japan develop so rapidly after being devastated from WWII? A) They took advantage of a large labor force.
B) They flooded the world market with inexpensive goods. C) They funneled profits into developing higher value goods
D) They spent twice as much money on research and development as the United States.
E) All of the above
E) All of the above
96. Which of the following country did many Asian countries follow as an example to development?
A) China.
B) Australia.
C) Japan.
D) Philippines.
E) India.
C) Japan.
97. The process of producing parts or products in a foreign country for domestic use or sale is known as?
A) Ecumene.
B) Peak value intersection.
C) Outsourcing.
D) Quanternary activities.
E) Tapering principle
C) Outsourcing.
98. The concept of outsourcing is fundamentally based on which of the following economic principles?
A) Comparative advantage.
B) Aggregation.
C) First effective settlement.
D) Uniform plane.
E) Renewable resources.
A) Comparative advantage
99. All of the following are advantages of outsourcing except
A) it can take advantage of low cost overseas labor.
B) it creates competitive market for parts and supplies. C) it provides more flexibility for companies.
D) it simplifies logistics of transportation of parts and products.
E) some countries have less restrictive environmental codes and regulations.
D) it simplifies logistics of transportation of parts and products
100. Ecotourism is most closely associated with which of the following development theories?
A) Appropriation. B) Dependency.
C) Modernization.
D) Neoliberal Counterrevolution.
E) Sustainable development.
E) Sustainable development.