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173 Cards in this Set

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What is the definition of the term ceiling?
-the height above the earths surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuration reported as broken or overcast or obscuration.
When do you need an alternate?
- if destination airport dose not have IAP or only has a GPS procedure.
or

-1 hr before to 1hr after your ETA at airport the weather is forecasted to be less than

-2000 ft ceilings
-3sm visibility

- If less than an alternate must be filed

- No IAP for alternate then you must be able to use normal maneuver to decent from MEA to land under basic VFR.
What minimums are to be used on arrival at the alternate?
If no minimums to use the selected airport as an alternate...

- at arrival of alternate shooting precision: at-least 600ft ceiling 2sm visibility
- at arrival of alternate non precision: at-least 800ft ceiling 2m visibility
What are preferred routes and where can they be found?
- route established between busier airports to increase system efficiency and capacity.
- found in AFD
What are in route low altitude charts? (AIM 9-1-4)
- provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 ft MSL
- revised every 56 days.
What are area charts? (AIM 9-1-4)
- show congested airports such as dallas/Atlanta on a larger scale
-revised every 56 days
Where can information on possible navigational aid limitation be found?
- notams and well as the AFD contain limitation to naiads.
What other information can be found in the AFD which might be helpful to in route planing?
A. enroute flight advisory system - service provided to enroute aircraft with weather advisories pertinent to flight being conducted
B. ARTCC - air route trafic control center, controls enroute aircraft in specific air space.
C. preferred IFR routes
D. special notices - flight service station and phone numbers
E. Vor receiver checkpoints - location and frequencies
What are Notams? (AIM 5-1-3)
- time critical aeronautical information that could effect pilots decision to make flight. Includes such information as airport or primary runway closure, changes in naviads, ILS, radar service availability and any other information essential to planned en route terminal or landing operations.
What are the 4 groups of noatms?
- D notams...wide dissemination via telecommunications regarding enroute navigational aids civil public use airports listen in the AFD facilities and services and procedures.
- FDC notams...information that is regulatory in nature included but no limited to changes in IFR charts procedures and airspace.
-Pointer notams...issued by flight service station used to point out another notam.
-Military notams... pertain to military forces navaids and airports.
Where can you obtain notam information?
-FSS
-Duats
-1800 wx brief
What instruments operate from the pitot static system? (draw it)
-airspeed indicator 
-altimeter
-vertical speed indicator
-airspeed indicator
-altimeter
-vertical speed indicator
How does the airspeed indicator operate?
differential pressure gauge measuring dynamic pressure
-dynamic pressure is the difference in static pressure and total pressure or ram.
-bronze anaroid diaphragm receives direct pitot pressure.
-Instrument is sealed and connected to static port.
-as pitot pressure increases/static decreases the diaphragm expands and vice versa.
-rocking shaft and set of gears drive the needles
P - ram/impact/dynamic + static = pitot compared against static.
I - IAS
M - white Vso/Vfe green Vs1 Vno yellow Vno/Vne red line.
P - pitot tube and static pressure
L - shows only IAS
E - position density alt, compressibility and mechanical e...
PIMPLE Airspeed indicator?
P - compares ram and static pressure. Dynamic pressure
I - IAS in 5kt increments
M - White / green / yellow / red line in arc
P - pitot tube and static pressure
L - max airspeed
E - position density alt, compressibility and mechanical errors.
What are the errors that the airspeed indicator is subject to?
-Position error static port can sense wild at times cause of slip stream varies with speed and altitude.
-Density error changes in altitude and temp are not compensated by instrument. At higher altitudes it is less dense. Airspeed indicator reads lower than actual true airspeed in higher altitudes. This is due to lower air density at higher altitudes.
-Compressibility above 180kts
What are the different types of airspeeds?
I - indicated read of instrument
C - calibrated Indicated corrected for position error (equal to true airspeed at sea level
E - is CAS corrected for compression of air in the pitot tube (same as CAS in standard atmosphere at sea level; less than CAS at higher altitudes and faster airspeeds)
T - true airspeed the speed airplane in reation the air mass in which flying (calibrated corrected for non standard temp and pressure.)
How does the altimeter work?
-has a stack of evacuated bronze capsules
-air pressure tries to compress them as natural springiness tries to expand them
-this results in their thickness changing as air pressure changes
-the change causes gears and linkages to move the dials on the face of instrument.
PIMPLE the Altimeter?
P - compares static pressure to aneroid wafer
I - feet above a selected pressure level
M - 1000, 100, 20
P - Static pressure
L - kollsman window 28" - 31"
E - pressure, temp , mechanical
What are errors this instrument is subject to?
Temp.
Warm day - the pressure level is higher than standard altimeter indicates lower than actual.
Cold day - the pressure level is lower than on a standard day altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude.
Pressure.
Higher pressure than standard - the altimer indicates lower than actual altitude
Lower than standard pressure - the altimer indicated higher than actual altitude.
High to low or hot to cold look out below!
Max allowable error for the altimeter?
75 ft within field elevation with current altimeter.
Different types of altitudes?
I - indicated read of instrument
P - Pressure altitude height above a standard datum plane or a selected pressure level
D - density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature
A - absolute AGL
T - True MSL
How does the Vertical speed indicator work?
-Inside the case is a horizontal diaphragm
-the diaphragm and case are connected directly to static system
-But the case is vented threw a calibrated orfice that causes the pressure inside to change more slowly than the instant pressure change inside the diaphragm.
-as the aircraft climbs the pressure decreases the pressure inside the case compresses the diaphragm causing the vsi to point to a positive climb and vice versa.
-When the aircraft levels of the pressure inside case becomes the same as in the diaphragm causing the vsi to level of.
PIMPLE the VSI?
P - measures increase or decrease in static pressure
I - rate over time, immediate trend
M- 100, 500, 1000 ,1500, 2000
P - static system
L - 6-9 second lag
E - calibration, mechanical
what happens in Pitot and static blockages?
-Ram blocked + Static ok = airspeed indicator goes to Zero, static pressure drains out threw drain hole.

-Drain block + pitot ok = operational ASI.

-Pitot & drained blocked + static open = altimeter (dangerous)

-Pitot open + static block = faster deciding, slower ascending

-pitot block + static block = frozen at previous airspeed

-Static blocked = altimeter frozen at previous/current altitude. VSI will go to zero slowly
What correction action is needed if pitot tube freezes? static is blocked?
-Pitot heat
-alternate static source
What indication should you expect if alternate static source is used?
momentary climb in all 3 instruments.
What instruments contain Gyros?
- Attitude indicator
- Heading indicator
- turn coordinator
Name power sources commonly used to power gyroscopic instruments?
pneumatic system, electrical, venturi, wet type, dry type. Typically heating and attitude are vacuum turn coordinator is electrical.
How does vacuum system operate?
vacuum spins the gyro by drawing a stream of air against the rotor vanes little buckets kind of like a water wheel. the amount of vacuum is usually between 4.5 and 5.5 in hg.
What are to important characteristics of gyros?
Rigidity in space - the characteristic of a gyro being able to resist rotation or tilting as earth rotated around it.
Precession - causes an applied force to be felt not at the point of application but 90 degrees from the point in the direction of rotation.
How does the attitude indicator work?
P - rigidity in space a/c moves around the gyro gimbals allow it to maintain its place horizon disk attached to gimbals help maintain it place.
I - direct indication of pitch and bank
M - bank 10, 20 ,30, 45, 60
P - Vacuum
L - 60 degres pitch and 100 roll
E - small bank angle and pitch error after 180 degree turn
slight nose up during acceleration vice versa

- gyro on a vertical spin axis. It is mounted on a double gimbal which allows the aircraft to pitch and roll about the gyro. Horizon disk is attached to gimbals so it remain in same plane as gyro. The airplane pitches and rolls around horizon disk.
How does heading indicator work?
P - rigitdity in space
I - heading (inderect indication of bank)
M - compass heading
P - vacuum
L - must be alinged with mag compass every 15 min.
E - no pv's so must be alinged every 15 min

- Spins on a horizontal axis on double gimbal sense rotation about the vertical axis of plane. when plane rotates on its vertical axis it moves the compass card, and gyro holds its place.
senses rotation about the vertical axis of the plane.
How does the turn coordinator work?
P - precession
I - rate and roll
M- standard rate and coordination
P - electrical
L - just standard rate
E - mechanical and calibration

-gimbal frame is angled upward about 30 degrees from the longitudinal axis of the airplane. Allows it to sense both roll and yaw. Inclinometer shows the relationship between the bank angle and rate of yaw.

- The gyro in this instrument is spinning on a horizontal axis angled 30 degree up. the gyro is spinning backwards, so because of precession once we make a turn left or right the force applied at the 9 o'clock position is felt 90 degrees in the way of the rotation at the 12 o'clock position which then tilts the gyro and the miniature aircraft on the face of instrument.

-skids outside the turn, slips inside the turn.

-Turns and slip only gives rate of turn. (how fast the nose is turning threw the horizon, in order to show that turn, a roll of wings must be established which makes this instrument sluggish at times)

- Turn coordinator gives rate of turn and rate of roll. ( shows your rate of roll therefore once established shows you also rate of turn which is yaw)
How does the magnetic compass work? and limitations?
-magnets mounted on the compass card align themselves parallel to the magnetic fields of the earth.
- tilt up to approximately 18 degrees more than that and it can become erratic with the indications.

Two small magnets attached to a metal float sitting on a pivot inside a bowl of clear compass fluid.Fluid takes alot of weight of pivot so it kinda of free floating. the magnets inside line up parallel with earth magnetics fields.
What are the errors of the magnetic compass?
VDMONA

-Variation is the difference between magnetic north and true north
-Deviation due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft
-Magnetic dip at the poles the lines are perpendicular to the surface the magnets want to align and dip.
-oscillation is caused by turbulence or rough control technique
UNOS
ANDS
what is UNOS?
(Undershoot north)
When flying on a heading of north and turn E...the card rotates to the opposite which would be west.
-when flying on a heading of south and a turn to the east it leads the turn.
the compass leads in the south half but lags in the north half.
Explain ANDS?
Accelerate north decelerate south
- accelerate on a east or west heading turns toward north.
- decelerate on east or west turns toward south.
How can and IFR clearance be obtained? aim 5-1-8
-airports with a tower threw ground control or clearance delivery
-airports with no tower or fss facility:
a.RCO remote communication outlet in some case over the telephone
b.or you clearance can be obtained threw artcc once you are airborne provide you remain in class E airspace and VFR.
What does cleared as filed mean? 5-2-5
as you filed it in your flight plan, provided the filed route can be approved with little or no revision.
Which clearance items are given in a abbreviated IFR clearance?
C - clearance limit
R - route
A - altitude
F - frequency
T - transponder
What does clearance void time mean?
- at airports with out a tower pilot can receive a clearance containing a prevision swing he has to depart in a certain time or the clearance is void.
- if you don't depart you have to advise ATC of your intentions
-usually no more than 30 min time slots.
What is the term hold for release mean?
delay a planes departure due to traffic management reason. Clearance not valid until the release time or further instructions are given.
Take off minimums for part 91, 121, 125, 129 or 135?
part 91 - none
Everyone else take off min. prescribed for the airport if none:
2 engines or less - 1sm
more than 2 engine: 1/2 sm
What are DP's and why are they necessary?
-provide obstacle clearance protection
- busier airports they increase efficiency and reduce communication and departure delays.
What are the 2 types of DP's?
ODP - obstacle departure procedure printed either textually or graphically. they give you obstruction clearance and do not need a atc clearance to fly.

SID - standard instrument departure procedure. always printed graphically provide obstacle clearance and transition from the terminal area to the appropriate enroute structure they reduce pilot controller work load and they do need atc clearance.
what criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure? 5-2-8
-pilot crossing the departure end of runway at least 35 ft
-climbing to 400 ft before turn is made
-and can maintain at-least 200 ft clim gradient
Where are DP's located?
listed by airport in IFR take off minimums and DP procedures
Must you accept a SID if assigned one?
-No
-atc must be advised immediately if pilot does not gold the assigned SID
-you can also put NO SID in the remarks section or tell them verbally
How do you know if T/O mins. are not standard?
Black triangle with the letter T inside.
What are diffrent methods of checking the VOR?
Vor test Signal VOT - +/- 4
ground checkpoint +/- 4
airborne checkpoint +/- 6
dual vor check +/- 4
Bench check performed by A&P
What records must you keep when checking the VOR?
Date
Place
Bearing error
Signature in aircraft log
When is altitude encoding transponder equipment required?
-At or above 10,000 feet msl over 48 continues states or DC
-Within 30 miles of class b airspace below 10,000 ft
Define MEA?
Minimin enroute altitude
- lowest published altitude between fixes that provides acceptable nav signals and meets obstacle requirements.
Define MOCA?
Minimum obstruction clearance altitude
lowest altitude between radio fixes on or off airways routes or segments that meet obstacle clearance and ensures nav signals only within 22nm of the VOR.
Define MCA?
minimum crossing altitude
-lowest altitude at which you must be before you cross
Define MRA ?
Minimum reception altitude
-lowest altitude where you can be assured nav aid signals.
Define MAA?
maximum authorized altitude
-the highest altitude on a route where nav signals are assured.
Define OROCA?
Of route abstraction clearance altitude
-off route 1000 ft buffer non mountainous terrain
2000ft buffer mountainous terrain
-may not get nav signals
If no minimum altitudes prescribed what apples?
-1000 ft over highest obstacle within 4nm of course - non mountainous terrain.
-2000 ft over highest obstacle within 4nm of course in mountainous terrain.
What cruising altitude should be maintained while operating under IFR controlled airspace? Uncontrolled?
Flight within controlled air space (A,B,C,D,E) what ever was assigned by ATC
- Uncontrolled class G below 18,000ft MSL
0 to 179......odd thousand
180 to 359......even thousand
What are required reporting points?
M - Missed Approach
A - Airspeed +/- 10 knots or 5% (whichever is greater)
R - Reaching a hold or fix
V - Vacating an altitude
E - ETA +/-3 minutes (nonradar environment)
L - Leaving a hold or fix
O - Outer Marker (nonradar environment)
U - Unforcast Weather (nonradar environment)
S - Safety of flight issue

V - VFR on top altitude change
F - Final Approach fix (nonradar environment)
R - Radios or navigation equipment failure

500 - unable to climb or descend at 500fpm
What information should be included in a position report?
I - Identification
P - position
T - time
A - Altitude
T - type of flight plan
E - Eta and name of next point
N - next suceeding report point
R - remarks
Are you required to report un forecasted weather?
Yes
Explain the difference between maintain and cruise clearance?
Maintain - self explanatory stay at that altitude

Cruise - used to assign a block of airspace to a pilot from minimum IFR altitude up and including the altitude specified in the cruise clearance.
-however once a pilot starts a decent and verbally reports leaving an altitude he may not return with out clearance from ATC
Why would a pilot request a VFR on top clearance?
-A pilot on a IFR flight plan in VFR conditions might request this for such reasons as turbulence or winds aloft better at different altitude.
-VFR on top is a IFR clearance.
-VFR on top is prohibited in class A.
What operational procedure must pilots on an IFR flight plan adhere to when on VFR on top?
-Fly appropriate VFR altitude
-Comply with VFR visibility
-Comply with instrument flight rules as far as Minimum IFR altitudes, position reports, radio communications, course flown ATC
What is a clearance limit?
- normally ATC clears you to the airport but in a clearance limit...
-a short range clearance procedure is used where a clearance is issued to a fix within or just outside the terminal area and pilot are advised as to frequency on which they will receive the long range clearance.
WHat information is provided when given a hold that is not charted?
-Direction of hold from fix
-holding fix
-Radial
-Lenght or time
- Direction of turns (standard right turns)
-EFC
Holds max airspeed?
MHA - 6000 = 200 KIAS
6001 - 14000 = 230 KIAS
14001 and above 265 KIAS
Why is it important to receive EFC time? And leg lengths?
-EFC is in case you lose radio communication you know win to depart the hold.

-Leg lengths
-1 min inbound leg at or below 14,000 ft MSL 1.5 if above.
When does the time for outbound leg begin in a hold?
- When abeam the fix
Two way radio communication failure in VFR and IFR conditions what is the procedure for altitude, and route leaving the fix, decent for approach, and approach selection?
-In VFR conditions continue under VFR land as soon a s practical.

-Trouble shoot / squak 7600

- IFR condition Route: In order of importance:
A - assinged....route assinged in last ATC clearance
V - Vectored (if nothing assinged fly last vector)
E - expected (if no vector fly what was expected in your clearance)
F - filed (finally fly what you filed)


Altitude (fly the highest of the following for that route segment)
M - minimum enroute altitude
E - expected altitude
A - assigned altitude

CLeared to IAF:
-EFC hold till EFC, shoot approach

-No EFC hold til ETA, shoot aproach

Not cleared to IAF:
-hold at limit to EFC then go to IAF hold till ETA shoot approach.

- No EFC hold till ETA at fix shoot approach
How do you get ADF relative bearing?
- Relative bearing is the angular difference between the heading of the aircraft and the station, measured clockwise from the nose.
How do you find an ADF magnetic bearing?
MH + RB = MB

if sum more than 360 subtract 360 and that is bearing to station. The reciprocal of that bearing would be "From" the station.
What is ADF homing?
- flying the aircraft on any heading required to keep zero on ADF needle until reaching station.
What is ADF tracking ?
Straight path inbound to or from an NDB. heading will be established that will maintain a desired trek compensating for wind drift.
What conditions needed for major structural icing to form?
- Aircraft must be flying threw visual moister.
-temp. at point where it strikes the aircraft must be 0 degrees Celsius or colder.
What action should you take if you encounter icing conditions?
- move to altitude with colder temp
- move to altitude with temp above freezing
-fly to an area clear of visible moister
-change heading to know non icing conditions.
Which type of precip. will produce the most hazardous icing conditions?
- freezing rain
If icing is encountered how would your landing approach procedure be different?
-More power during the approach
-higher airspeed(because disrupts airflow)
-expect also higher stall speed
-expect longer ground roll
- no flaps recommended
-avoid a missed approach situation
Types of icing?
Clear - most dangerous water freezes slow

rime - jagged freezes fast traps air

mixed - clear and rime

induction - stops air to enine
Vor frequency range?
108.0 - 117.95 mhz
Different classes of VOR?
Terminal - 1000ft - 12,000 AGL 25NM radius

Low - 1000ft to 18,000ft AGL 40NM radius

High -
1000ft to 14,500ft AGL 40NM
14,500ft to 18,000ft AGL 100NM
18,000ft to 45,000 AGL 130 NM
45,000ft to 60,000ft AGL 100nm
When radio beacon used in conjunction with an ILS what is it called ?
Compass Locator
4 types of NDB facilities in use?
High Homing - 75nm
Homing - 50nm
Medium Homing - 25nm
ILS compas locator - 15nm
NDB limitations?
-wrong bearing error because of lightning, precipitation, at night interference with distant stations
What is DME? and when is it required?
-planes equipped with DME can receive distance and ground speed information.

-it works by sending pulses to the ground station then the station sends them back. DME receiver in plane calculates them and translates them into speed and distance.

-required above FL240
DME slant range error rule of thumb?
-error will be minimum if aircraft is 1 or more miles from facility for each 100ft of altitude above facility.
Description of GPS?
-GPS is composed of constellation which is 24 satellites.
- the are arranged so that the receiver can see 5 at any time but only 4 are necessary for operation.

- Receiver utilizes 4 best positioned satellites to get a 3d fix (latitude, longitude and altitude)

- Using distance/position information from the satellite, the recover calculates its location.
Is an alternate means of navigation needed for flight if only using GPS under IFR flight?
- Yes unless you have WAAS then no additional equipment is needed.
What is the purpose of RAIM?
receiver autonomous integrity monitoring.

-receiver verifies the integrity of the signal received by gps constellation, to determine that there is no corrupt information received.
-Raim need a minimum of 5 satellites in view or 4 and barometric altimeter .
WHere can pilot obtain RAIM info?
FAA weather briefer

Request it with the briefer
What is a waypoint?
predetermined geographical position in space.
WHat is a STAR?
Standard terminal arrival route

-arrival route established for IFR aircraft arriving to certain airports.
-purpose is to simplify clearance delivery procedures and facilitate transition between enroute and approach procedures.
ATC gives you a STAR do you accept it?
No, but if you do you most posses the approved chart.
What is a RNAV STAR?
- same as a regular STAR but used by aircraft with FMS or GPS.
Define initial approached segment, intermediate approach segment, final approach segment, missed approach segment?
Initial approach segment is the segment between IAF and the intermediate fix

-Intermediate segment is between intermediate fix and final approach fix

-final approach segment is between the FAF and the runway airport or missed approach point

-missed approach segment is between missed point and missed fix
What is a feeder route?
- depicted on IAP charts and designate the course for aircraft to fly from the enroute structure to an IAF

- Chart provides the course or bearing to be flown the distance and minimum safe altitude.
WHat is cleared for the visual?
-authorizes the pilot to to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport.

-the pilot must have either the airport or the proceeding aircraft insight

-must be authorized by control tower ceiling at or above 1000 ft and visibility 3 miles or greater.
What is a contact approach?
-on IFR flight plan
-1sm clear of clouds
-must be requested by the pilot and authorized by ATC
-must have instrument approach procedure.
-you can deviate from approach and proceed direct to the airport by visual reference.
What must you have before decent to an approach?
I - In range
C - clearance
E - Established positive course guidance
When is a procedure turn not required?
S - straight in
h - hold is published in lieu of procedure turn
a - DME arc
R - radar vectored
P - no PT on chart
T - teardrop entry
T - timed entry
4 parts of the approach plate?
-Header (brief strip)
-Planview (drawn to scale
-Profile view (not to scale)
-Land minimums (altitude visibility)
When can you descend below MDA/DA? 91.175
-Aircraft must be Position to land using normal maneuver.

-Flight visibility not less than that prescribed in IAP being used.

-Approach light system in sight can descend to 100ft above touchdown zone elevation.

-Decent to runway can be made when :
Red termanating bars in sight (alsf 1)
Red side row bars in sight (alsf 2)
thresh hold
thresh hold markings
thresh hold lights
runway
runway markings
runway lights
touchdown zone
touchdown zone markings
touchdown zone lights
Runway end identifier lights(REIL)
Visual approach slope indicator(VASI)
IN SIGHT..
WHat are the basic components of the ILS?
G - Guidance Localizer, Glide Slope
R - range marker beacons DME
V - Visual approach lights touchdown zone center lights runway lights.
What are the service volumes of the ILS? (draw it)
Localizer: located far end of the approach end. 35 degrees on each side from centerline at 10nm.
10 degrees on each side from centerline at 8nm beyond the first 10nm. 3 to 6 degree with of 700ft at runway approach threshold.

Glide Slope: located from 750ft to 1250ft on approach end. range is normally 10nm. set at a 3 degree vertical angle 1.4 degrees in depth.
FREQ 108.10 - 111.95mhz
Describe the marker beacons?
Outer: Blue light, dull tone, slow speed, located 4-7nm out from landing threshold indicated the ac at the appropriate altitude and loc course for GS interception.

Middle maker:
amber light medium tone medium speed located 3500 ft from landing threshold indicates aircraft is 200 ft above touch down zone.

Inner marker:
White light hight tone high speed located between MM and landing threshold indicates the aircraft is at decision height.
What is the difference between DA and DH?
DA and DH - is point at which you have to decide to land or go missed.

The difference is that DA is from mean sea level. While DH is referenced from threshold elevation.
What is MDA?
- minimum decent altitude in non precision approach.

-lowest altitude expressed in feet msl to which the decent is authorized on final approach or during circle to land.
To maintain glide slope and airspeed on an ils approach how are power and pith used?
-pitch to maintain glide slope.

-power to adjust the air speed.
What are legal substitutions for an outer marker?
-precision approach radar
-airport surveillance radar
-dme
-vor
-NDB fix
or RNAV fix
What are PAR and ASR approaches?
-PAR in (precession approach) - in which controller provides highly accurate nav guidance in azimuth and elevation to pilot.

-ASR (non precession approach) controller provides navigational guidance in azimuth only.
No gyro approach ?
when the controller tell you to turn left, turn right, stop the turn, they guide you.

-on this approach all turns should be made standard rate until on final then go to half standard rate.
Define VDP ?
-Visual decent point aid the pilot in deciding to decent below the MDA or not provided the threshold runway lights and markings are identifiable and clearly visible.
If no FAF is published where does final approach segment begin on non precision approach?
- begins where the procedure turn intersects the final approach course inbound.
What is a step down fix?
-permits additional decent within a segment by identify a point at which a obstacle has been safely over flown.
What does vasi provide?
-provide visual decent guidance during approach to runway safe obstruction clearance with +/- 10 degrees of extended centerline and up to 4nm from runway threshold
What are major differences between SDF and LDA?
-there both non precision approaches.

-SDF not aligned with runway, 35 degrees of ether side of centerline

-LDA compares to localizer lda is between 3 to 6 degrees course width more precise than SDF.
WHat is WAAS?
Wide area augmentation system-
satellite navigation system consisting of equipment and software which augments(makes greater and better) the GPS.
waas provides enhanced integrity accuracy and availability over and above the gps.

-aircraft equipped with and approved waas recover can use gps as the primary mean of navigation from take off to land with out a alternate system on board.
WHat does APV mean?
Approach with vertical guidance. these approaches provide vertical guidance but do not meet more stringent (strict, precise) standards of a precision approach. certified waas recovers will be able to fly these lnav/vnav procedures using waas electronic glide path.
What is LPV ?
Localizer performance with vertical guidance a new type of approach which takes advantage of high accuracy guidance and increased integrity provided by WAAS.
These results in approaches that may have DA as low as 200ft height above touchdown with visibility minimum as low as 1/2 sm.
Minimus for these approaches published on rnav gps approach charts.
-your aircraft has to be approved statement saying you have lpv capability and WAAS.
What are circle to land approaches? Why?
-Its a manuver initiated by the pilot to along the aircraft with the runway for landing when a straight in landing from an instrument approach is not possible.

-at controlled airports this maneuver is made only after ATC authorizes, and pilot has visual reference at airport.

-done when either the normal rate of decent or runway alignment is off 30 degrees or exceeded circling minimums apply.
When can you begin your decent to runway during circling approach?
3 conditions before leave MDA:

-Aircraft is in a position from which decent to a landing can be made using normal rate of decent and maneuver.

-the flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used.

-at least one of the specific runway visual references for the intended runway is distinctly identifiable.
When circling to land you lose visual with the runway environment what do you do?
- visual reference lost while circling make an initial climb turn toward the landing runway and continue turn until established on missed approach course.
What obstacle clearance are you guaranteed during a circling approach maneuver?
-300ft of obstacle clearance within the circling approach area.

Cat A ......1.3 mile radios
Cat B ......1.5 mile radios
Cat C ...... 1.7
Cat D ...... 2.3
Cat E ...... 4.5
How can a pilot determine the approach category minimums applicable to particular aircraft?
1.3 x Vso
What are approach speed in different categories?
Cat A ...... less than 91 knots
Cat B ...... 91 or more / less than 121
Cat C ...... 121 or more / less than 141
Cat D ...... 141 or more / less than 166
Cat E ...... 166 or more
When must pilot execute missed approach?
- arrival of missed approach point and runway not insight.

- arrival on DH on glide slope and runway environment not in sight

- pilot determines safe landing not possible

- circle to land visual lost

- when instructed by ATC
On a non precision approach procedure how is the missed approach point (MAP) determined?
- pilot determines the MAP by timing from the FAF.

-by fix or nav/aid

-or way points as defined by GPS
If no FAF is depicted how is MAP determined?
- your MAP is the airport.
Where is the MAP on a precision approach?
- MAP is DA or DH.
What does the phrase "cleared for the option" mean?
Option for:
-touch and go
-low approach
-missed approach
-stop and go
-full stop landing
What conditions are necessary for a pilot to log instrument time?
- flight time only when pilot operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated flight conditions.
When logging instrument time what should be included in each entry?
- place
-type of approach completed
-name of safety pilot
What is MSA?
-minimum safe altitude

-used during lost comms or disorientation provides 1000ft obstacle clearance dose not ensure signal coverage
What is RVR ?
- the distance a pilot can see when on centerline of runway.

-Runway visual range
What are the 3 fundamentals of a scan?
C - cross check
I - Interpret
A - Aircraft control
Common Errors of a scan?
F - Fixation (stare at one)
O - omission (forget one)
E - emphasis (on one instead of a combination)
What is "special VFR"?
- it is when VFR pilots are given a clearance to temporarily fly in weather conditions less than standard VFR.

-Special VFR exists only (for) aircraft operating in and out of or transiting within the lateral boundaries of Class B, C, D or E surface areas when the primary airport is reporting VFR conditions but the pilot cannot maintain VFR.
What are instrument currency requirements? (FAR 61.57)
-Within the preceding 6 calendar months (same category)

-6 instrument approaches
-holding
-intercept and
-tracking
What happens if pilot allows it to expire? (FAR 61.57)
-you cannot act as PIC under IFR conditions.

-but you get "grace period" of 6 more month to get current.

-After does 6 month are up then you have to get an IPC.
Who can act as safety pilot?
-Pilot with a current medical and rated in same category and class.

-VFR at least private pilot

-IFR condition has to be instrument rated
how can you tell if an airport has non standard alternate minimums?
-BLACK TRIANGLE WITH THE LETTER A
What are fuel requirements for IFR flight?
- to the airport of intended landing plus the alternate (if alternate required) + 45 minutes and normal cruising speed.
What inspections are required for IFR flight?
A – Airworthiness Directives (AD’s)
V – VOR Check (every 30 days) (IFR Only)
I – Inspections 100 hour (For Hire Only) and Annual (Required of all Aircraft)
A – Altimeter (Every 24 Calendar Months) (IFR Only)
T – Transponder (Every 24 Calendar Months)
E – ELT (Every 12 Calendar Months)
S – Static System (Every 24 Calendar Months) (IFR Only)
When can you cancel and IFR flight plan?
- Any time you are in VFR conditions.
Difference between contact approach and visual approach?
Visual:
-Control can issues it
-for reduce workload expedite traffic
-Pilot must have airport or proceeding aircraft in sight
-at least 1000ft and 3sm visibility remain CoC.

Contact:
-Request / and authorization needed
-runway must have approved approach procedure
-1sm CoC
What instrument are required for VFR flight?
A - airspeed indicator
T - tach
O - oil pressure gauge
M - manifold pressure gauge
A - altimeter
T - temp gauge
O - oil temp gauge
E - ELt
F - fuel gauge
L - landing gear indicator
A - anti collision lights
M - Mag compass
E - emergency equipment
S - seatbelt
Night:
F - fuses
L - landing light
A - anti collision
P - position
S - source of electricity
What is required for instrument flight?
VFR day instruments and

G - generator or alternator
R - radios and nav equipment
A - Altimeter
B - ball inclinometer
C - clock with sweeping hand
A - attitude indicator
R - turn coordinator
D - dme fl 240
D - directional gyro
If enroute to your destination you lost communications and upon arrival at the airport you where forced to go missed what is your next action?
- fly to alternate immediately. ATC will clear area for 30 mins
Define HAA, HAT, TCH, TDZE?
HAA - height above airport (highest point of any runway used for circle to land)

HAT - height above touchdown zone (used in conjunction with straight in approaches)

TCH - Threshold crossing height (height of GS antenna above threshold height)

TDZE - touch down zone elevation (is highest point in the first 3000 ft of runway or touch down zone used to determine the HAT)
VorA, VorB meaning?
-approaches are not aligned with runway they are circle to land approaches.
Where is the MAP on a Vor or NDB approach?
- at the station passage
- you would not need time because you would not shoot approach if nav aid is out
What is max allowable precision error in DG?
-3 degrees every 15min
What are allowable errors for attitude indicator?
- up and errect within 5 min
- no more than 5 degrees of bank in turn on taxi.
If controller tell you expects ILS 5 approach then you loose comms what do you do ?
- you go to IAF complete full approach if in IMC.
What is FAF on a precision approach?
- Glide slope intercept
Straight in vs. circling minimums?
- straight in require the runway to be aligned within 30 degrees otherwise you have circle minimums.
What is side step maneuver?
-Landing on a parallel runway after doing t the IAP for the other runway then switch to its "twin" must be within 1200 ft of other runway.
is an alternate static source required for IFR flight?
- only when flying for hire.
How does the VOR work?
- Very high frequency omnidirectional range.

- projects straight lince courses out from the VOR 360 radials.
- radials in magnetic north very acurate + or - 1 degree.
- Frequency band is 108 to 117.95 mhz
- Line of sight
- 3 classes T , L , H
3 segments to the GPS ?
Space segment
- 24 satellites constellation
- 5 in view at any time of receiver
- atomic clocks
- UHF no weather issues
- line of sight
- must be above horizon

Control Segment
- Mater control station
- for continues monitoring and communications

User Segment
- gps receiver installed in aircraft.
What aeronautical experience must student have to get Instrument rating ?
- 50 hrs x-country PIC
- 10 must be in airplane
- 40hrs simulated or actual instrument
- 15 hrs in of instrument training from authorized instructor in category aircraft.
- 3 hrs of preparation for practical test within 60 days of test
- x-country 250 nm along airways or ATC directing, with 3 different IAP's
Instrument rating requirements ?
- student must hold PPC with airplane rating suitable to instrument rating sought.
- read, write, speak, english
- Endorsemnt for knoledge exam
- Endorsment for practical test
WHat is part 61 ?
- certification for pilots, flight instructors, and ground instructors.
- the requirements for issuance
- the conditions necessary for issuance
- and privileges and limitations of those certificates or ratings.
What is part 91 ?
- General operating anf flight rules
- describes the rules governing the opertion of an aircraft.
What is part 71, 95, 97 ?
71 - Airspace
95 - IFR altitudes
97 - IAP
When pitot tube freezes slowly what should you expect ?
Airspeed will still be functional, but the readings are going to be off. So what we will do is compare are ASI vs. the rest of the instruments (ALT, VSI, AI)
On glide-slope, encounter wind-shear, (tail wind shears to headwind ?
Pitch - increase
thrust - reduce then increase
Reaction - reduce initially, then increase
On glide-slope, encounter wind-shear, (headwind shears to tail wind ?
pitch - decrease
thrust - increase then decrease
Reaction - increase power initially, then a decrease
What procedure are you going to follow when on a circle to land?
- Maintain minimums and visibility in the approach chart selected.
- maneuver the shortest path to down wind or base leg
- no restriction on crossing airport or runways to do this.
- at an airport with not tower is better to fly over it first and then enter a 45 downwind leg.
- maintain visual with runway if lost go missed.
- maintain minimums until you are in a position to land and decent to runway.
- if possible fly altitude close to TPA
- Cat A 1.3, B - 1.5, C -1,7
What do you do when you have a vacuum failure and attitude and heading indicator go out?
1. recognize you have a failure. warnings lights and gauge.

2. Notify ATC loss of gyro instruments

3. VFR land as soon as practical

4. no vfr shoot approach partial panel.
Turn-coordinator primary for bank. Altimeter primary for pitch. Navigation magnetic compass or gps.
Electrical failure what actions to take?
- check to make sure switches are right positions
- check circuit breakers
- reset master switch and or alternator / trouble shoot
- ALT dead turn off
-turn off all non essential radios or lights.
- VFR conditions, make calls land as soon as practical.
- IFR make calls to atc, have the transponder on and essential radio for time being.