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169 Cards in this Set

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The most restrictive method of traffic management that overrides all other traffic management programs is the ________.


A. Ground Stop


B. Ground Delay


C. En Route Sequencing


D. Arrival Sequencing

A. Ground Stop

LP01 pg.53

“Separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts” represents an air traffic controller's ________.


A. Duty priority


B. Procedural preference


C. Operational priority


D. Primary purpose

A. Duty Priority

LP01 pg.20

Markings which consist of pairs of three, then two, and then one rectangular bar(s) on each side of the runway centerline, 500 feet apart, identify the _______.


A. Threshold


B. Runway edge


C. Touchdown zone


D. Touchdown aim point

C. Touchdown Zone

LP03 pg.11

Threshold lights are ________.


A. White/yellow


B. Green/yellow


C. White/red


D. Green/red

D. Green/red

LP03 pg.34

RVSM stands for ________.


A. Required Visual Separation Minima


B. Reduced Vertical Separation Minima


C. Requested Visual Separation Minima


D. Required Vertical Separation Minima

B. Reduced Vertical Separation Minima

LP04 pg.7

Which type of separation is applied by clearing aircraft to fly on different airways or routes whose protected airspace does not overlap?


A. Visual


B. Longitudinal


C. Radar


D. Lateral

D. Lateral

LP04 pg.11

The standard minimum non-radar separation between two aircraft using DME is __________________.


A. 20 minutes or 10 miles


B. 5 minutes or 10 miles


C. 10 minutes or 20 miles


D. 10 minutes or 5 miles

C. 10 minutes or 20 miles

LP04 pg.15

Controllers may use visual separation ________.


A. Up to, but not including, FL180


B. At FL180 and below


C. Up to and including 18,000 feet MSL


D. Up to, but not including, 18,000 feet AGL

A. Up to, but not including, FL 180

LP04 pg.27

Do not allow a departing aircraft to begin takeoff roll with a preceding arriving aircraft on an intersecting runway unless:


A. The arriving aircraft has passed the intersection


B. The arriving aircraft has reached the intersection


C. The departing aircraft has the arriving aircraft in sight


D. The controller has both aircraft in sight

A. The arriving aircraft has passed the intersection

LP04 pg.31

Airmen's information can be disseminated via aeronautical charts and _______.


A. Satellite communications


B. Facility directives


C. Flight information publications


D. FAA orders

C. Flight information publications

LP05 pg.4

What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems?


A. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal


B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal


C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal


D. Cool air over warm air deflecting the radar signal

C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal

LP06 pg.17

Secondary radar interference caused by a transponder replying excessively is called _______.


A. Ring around


B. Anomalous propagation


C. Range interference


D. Inversion

A. Ring around

LP06 pg.29

Which document contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA?


A. FAA Order JO 7340.2


B. FAA Order JO 7110.65


C. Aeronautical Information Manual


D. FAA Order JO 7350.8

A. FAA Order JO 7340.2

LP07 pg.12

The purpose of a "change" is ________.


A. A temporary direction for a situation requiring immediate action


B. To add, delete, or modify information or instructions within an order


C. To make one-time announcements


D. To consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive

B. To add, delete, or modify information or instructions within an order

LP07 pg.4

Which contraction is used to identify General Notices issued by Washington Headquarters?


A. GANOT


B. GENOT


C. GENNOT


D. GNOT

B. GENOT

LP07 pg.7

The purpose of a “supplement” is ________.


A. To provide temporary direction for a situation requiring immediate action


B. To add, delete, or modify information or instructions within an order


C. To make one-time announcements


D. To consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive

D. To consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive

LP07 pg.4

When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the words "may" and "need not" mean that the procedure is ________.


A. Recommended


B. Approved


C. Optional


D. Mandatory

C. Optional

LP07 pg.15

When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word "must" means that the procedure is ________.


A. Recommended


B. Optional


C. Approved


D. Mandatory

D. Mandatory

LP07 pg.15

In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is ________.


A. Must


B. May not


C. Should


D. Normally

A. Must

LP07 pg.15

When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word "should" means that the procedure is ________.


A. Recommended


B. Optional


C. Approved


D. Mandatory

A. Recommended

LP07 pg.16

When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word "will" means ________.


A. Recommended


B. Not a requirement for application of a procedure


C. Optional


D. Mandatory

B. Not a requirement for application of a procedure

LP07 pg.17

Which airspace contains federal airways?


A. Class A


B. Class C


C. Class E


D. Class G

C. Class E

LP12 pg.10

Which type of special use airspace is NOT charted?


A. Alert areas


B. National security areas


C. Controlled firing areas


D. Terminal radar service areas

C. Controlled firing areas

LP12 pg.21

According to their location, ATO air traffic control facilities are assigned to one of ________.


A. Nine regions


B. Three service areas


C. Eleven FAA primary offices


D. Four FAA Headquarters divisions

B. Three service areas

Traffic management programs are one of several processes administered by the Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC) to achieve optimum use of the ________ and minimize delays without increasing controller workload.


A. Airspace


B. NAS


C. ATC System


D. Airports

B. NAS

The facility that provides radar approach and departure control services to aircraft operating in the vicinity of one or more airports in a Terminal area is a/an ________.


A. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)


B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)


C. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)


D. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

A. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)

Air traffic facilities, airports, NAVAIDs, FARs, and personnel are all components of the ________.


A. Traffic Management System (TMS)


B. National Airspace System (NAS)


C. Airway Facilities Service


D. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

B. National Airspace System (NAS)

The primary Navigational Aids (NAVAID) for the nation's airways in the National Airspace System (NAS) are ________.


A. Marker beacons


B. VORs/VORTACs


C. Non-Directional Beacons (NDB)


D. Instrument Landing Systems (ILS)

B. VORs/VORTACs

LP01 pg.59

The operation of the TMS is the responsibility of the ________.


A. Central Altitude Reservation Facility


B. ARTCC Traffic Management Unit (TMU) for each area


C. Air Traffic Manager


D. Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC)

B. ARTCC Traffic Management Unit (TMU) for each area

LP01 pg.51

Positive control refers to the ________.


A. Control specialist’s ability to communicate directly with the pilot


B. Linkage between the flight controls and the control surfaces


C. Movement of the flight controls above the horizontal axis


D. Separation of all air traffic, within designated airspace, by air traffic control

D. Separation of all air traffic, within designated airspace, by air traffic control

LP01 pg.20

The facility primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings is the ________.


A. ATCT


B. ARTCC


C. ATCSCC


D. AFSS

D. AFSS

LP01 pg.26

The position in the ATC Terminal option that is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to aircraft and vehicles operating on the airport movement areas (other than active runways) is __________.


A. Local Control


B. Ground Control


C. Clearance Delivery


D. Flight Data

B. Ground Control

LP01 pg.35

An ARTCC/TRACON is divided into areas of control jurisdiction called ________.


A. Positions


B. Regions


C. Sectors


D. Sections

C. Sectors

LP01 pg.42

The ARTCC Radar Associate position ________.


A. Scans and manages flight progress strips


B. Is not responsible for ensuring separation


C. Is in direct communication with the pilot


D. Does not initiate control instructions

A. Scans and manages flight progress strips

LP01 pg.44

The correct designation for a Runway with a magnetic heading of 084 is Runway _______.


A. 08


B. 8


C. 09


D. 9

B. 8

LP03 pg.6

Civil land airports have rotating beacons that flash _______.


A. White and green


B. Two white and one green


C. White


D. Green

A. White and green

LP03 pg.32

A standard holding pattern __________.



A. Uses left turns


B. Is used only in En Route operations


C. Always includes Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) leg lengths


D. Uses right turns

D. Uses right turns

LP04 pg.35

Two thousand feet vertical separation is always required for an IFR flight above ______ to FL600.



A. FL410


B. FL290


C. FL240


D. FL180

A. FL410

LP04 pg.7

When using non-radar departure divergence ___________.



A. The airport must have at least 2 runways that intersect


B. The ATCS must wait 10 minutes between successive departures


C. The ATCS must assign courses that diverge by at least 45 degrees


D. The ATCS must ensure that visual separation exists

C. The ATCS must assign courses that diverge by at least 45 degrees

LP04 pg.12

Which of the following is not a method for establishing non-radar longitudinal separation?



A. Depart at a specified time


B. Arrive at a fix at a specified time


C. Clear aircraft to fly on airways which do not overlap


D. Hold at a fix until a specified time

C. Clear aircraft to fly on airways which do not overlap

LP04 pg.14&15

How many miles of separation must an ARTCC controller provide between two aircraft at FL200?



A. 3 NM


B. 5 NM


C. 3 SM


D. 5 SM

B. 5 NM

LP04 pg.21

Which of the following is not a requirement for applying visual separation in a radar environment?A. Both aircraft are below FL180


B. The pilots of both aircraft have the other aircraft in sight


C. One pilot is instructed to maintain visual separation from another aircraft


D. Another form of separation is used before and after visual separation is applied

B. The pilots of both aircraft have the other aircraft in sight

LP04 pg.26&27

A NOTAM that is widely disseminated and applies to civil components of the NAS is classified as a _______.



A. NOTAM D


B. Military NOTAM


C. Pointer NOTAM


D. FDC NOTAM

A. NOTAM D

LP05 pg.13

Who is responsible for originating a NOTAM concerning a navigational aid?



A. Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid


B. Center in whose area the outage occurs


C. Terminal in whose area the outage occurs


D. Automated Flight Service Station

A. Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid

LP05 pg.8

What is the electronic device that permits radar presentations only from targets in motion?



A. Anomalous propagation


B. Moving target indicator


C. Primary radar


D. Linear polarization

B. Moving target indicator

LP06 pg.9

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a secondary radar system?



A. It does not display weather


B. It provides a shorter range


C. More vulnerable to blind spots


D. Responses are degraded by weather and ground clutter

A. It does not display weather

LP06 pg.30

Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers?



A. FAA Order JO 7210.3


B. FAA Order JO 7110.65


C. Aeronautical Information Manual


D. Terminal Phraseology Guide

B. FAA Order JO 7110.65

LP07 pg.10

Temporary directions or one-time announcements are made through ________.



A. Changes


B. Notices


C. Supplements


D. Amendments

B. Notices

LP07 pg.7

The three types of temporary or additional instructions to an FAA directive are _______.



A. Changes, notices, supplements


B. Notices, supplements, orders


C. Changes, notices, attachments


D. Changes, attachments, orders

A. Changes, notices, supplements

LP07 pg.4

Which of the following statements is correct?



A. SOPs are for intrafacility use and LOAs are for extrafacility use.


B. LOAs are for interfacility use and SOPs are for intrafacility use.


C. LOAs are for extrafacility use and SOPs are for jurisdictional use.


D. SOPs are for intrafacility use and LOAs are for intrafacility use.

B. LOAs are for interfacility use and SOPs are for intrafacility use

LP08 pg.10

Which of the following is not an example of typical SOP content?



A. External coordination


B. Position relief briefing


C. Equipment usage


D. Local stripmarking procedures

A. External coordination

LP08 pg.11

Which airspace generally extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports?



A. Class A


B. Class B


C. Class C


D. Class D

B. Class B

LP12 pg.5

All of the following are types of visual separation except:



A. Tower Visual Separation


B. Terminal Visual Separation


C. Radar Visual Separation


D. Visual Separation used in conjunction with visual approaches

B. Terminal Visual Separation

LP04 pg.25

What color are taxiway edge lights?



A. White


B. Amber


C. Blue


D. Red


C. Blue

LP03 pg.38

A feature which improves a primary radar display is:



A. Moving target indicator


B. Anomalous propagation


C. Temperature inversion


D. Ring around

A. Moving target indicator

LP06 pg.9

A document providing temporary direction for a situation requiring immediate action describes a:



A. Supplement


B. Change


C. Notice


D. Order

C. Notice

LP07 pg.7

An aircraft has the right-of-way over all other aircraft when it is in ________.



A. VFR conditions


B. Distress


C. IFR conditions


D. Controlled airspace

B. Distress

LP13 pg.15

Eligibility for an ATC Tower operator certificate, requires all of the following except:



A. Possession of a second class medical certificate


B. Ability to read, write, and understand the English language


C. Be at least 21 years of age


D. Be of good moral character

C. Be at least 21 years of age

LP13 pg.38

An ATC specialist who is 41 years of age and works in the Terminal option is required to have a medical examination every ________.



A. 1 year


B. 2 years


C. 3 years


D. 5 years

A. 1 year

LP13 pg.42

When an IFR flight loses two-way communications with ATC, controllers should consider the pilot’s actions with regard to their:



A. Route, speed, and altitude


B. Route, time to leave their clearance limit, and speed


C. Altitude, route, and time to leave their clearance limit


D. Altitude, time to leave their clearance limit, and speed

C. Altitude, route, and time to leave their clearance limit

LP14 pg.27

What is the requirement for supplemental oxygen above 15,000 MSL?



A. Only the pilot is provided supplemental oxygen


B. No requirement


C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen


D. Pilot and co-pilot are provided supplemental oxygen

C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen

LP14 pg.35

A term for the air flow which is parallel with, and opposite to, the direction of flight is called a/an ____________.



A. Angle of attack


B. Relative wind


C. Flight path


D. Headwind

B. Relative wind

LP09 pg.6

Relative wind flows in a direction parallel with and __________ the direction of flight.



A. Opposite to


B. Perpendicular to


C. Horizontal to


D. Divergent from

A. Opposite to

LP09 pg.6

If a pilot adjusts the pitch and yaw, the aircraft is moving along the __________________ axes.



A. Longitudinal and vertical


B. Lateral and vertical


C. Longitudinal and lateral


D. Lateral and horizontal

B. Lateral and vertical

LP09 pg.23

What term defines a maneuver in which a helicopter is in motionless flight over a reference point and maintaining a constant heading and altitude?



A. Autorotation


B. Blade stall


C. Hovering


D. Ground effect

C. Hovering

LP09 pg.40

The most hazardous aspect of structural icing is that it _______.



A. Decreases weight


B. Increases drag


C. Reduces thrust


D. Distorts airfoil

D. Distorts airfoil

LP09 pg.44

The definition of "wake turbulence" includes a number of phenomena affecting flight safety. Which of the four choices are not included in the definition?



A. Mach buffet


B. Rotor wash


C. Propeller wash


D. Jet blast

A. Mach buffet

LP10 pg.25

Counter control to a wake turbulence induced roll is most effective when _______.



A. There is no more than a 5 knot crosswind


B. A large aircraft follows a heavy aircraft


C. A rapid descent is made


D. The ailerons extend beyond the edge of the vortex

D. The ailerons extend beyond the edge of the vortex

LP10 pg.19

A hovering helicopter will generate a high speed outward vortex to a distance of approximately ________ times the diameter of the rotor.



A. 1


B. 2


C. 3


D. 4

C. 3

LP10 pg.21

The first character in an aircraft designation must be a(n) ________.



A. Number


B. Letter


C. Letter or number


D. ‘N’

B. Letter

LP11 pg.11

Recognition features of the B737 are ___________.



A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing


B. Two jet engines under each wing, low wing


C. One jet engine under each wing, T-tail


D. One jet engine under each wing, one jet in tail

A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing

LP11 pg.59

One minute of latitude is equal to ___________ any place on the Earth's surface.



A. 60 nautical miles (NM)


B. 60 statute miles (SM)


C. 1 nautical mile (NM)


D. 1 statute mile (SM)

C. 1 nautical mile

LP15 pg.9

The method of navigation that requires the use of ground-based transmitters is called ________.



A. Ground computation


B. Pilotage


C. Dead reckoning


D. Radio navigation

D. Radio navigation

LP15 pg.46

The different classes of VORs are ________.



A. High, Low, Terminal


B. High, Medium, Low


C. High, Low, Compass Locator


D. High, Medium, Terminal

A. High, Low, Terminal

LP16 pg.7

How many satellites does a GPS receiver need to yield three dimensional information image that includes the position, velocity, time, and altitude of an object?



A. 3


B. 4


C. 5


D. 6

B. 4

LP16 pg.26

Generally, the vertical dimensions of a low altitude VOR airway are from ________.



A. The surface up to, but not including, 18,000 feet AGL


B. The surface up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL


C. 12,000 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL


D. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL

D. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL

LP16 pg.32

Which of the following charts contain the greatest amount of detail of all the VFR navigation charts?



A. Sectional Aeronautical Chart


B. VFR Terminal Area Chart


C. World Aeronautical Chart


D. IFR/VFR Planning Chart

B. VFR Terminal Area Chart

LP18 pg.31

The World Aeronautical Chart and the Sectional Aeronautical Chart are alike because they both ________.



A. Use similar symbols in the chart legends


B. Depict minimum IFR altitudes


C. Are used primarily by high speed aircraft


D. Provide the pilot with information about services available at various airports

A. Use similar symbols in the chart legends

LP18 pg.38

What chart or publication would not be used to find out the Tower frequency and whether an airport has a control Tower?



A. Sectional Aeronautical Chart


B. Terminal Area Chart


C. Airport/Facility Directory


D. AIM

D. AIM

LP07 pg.14


LP18 pg.41


LP18 pg.4


LP18 pg. 32

On an En Route High Altitude Chart, all NAVAIDs shown are ________ class, unless otherwise identified.



A. Low (L)


B. High (H)


C. Terminal (T)


D. Regional (R)

B. High (H)

LP19 pg.40

Instrument approaches that do not provide electronic glide slope/glidepath information are classified as ________ approaches.



A. Precision


B. Non-precision


C. NDB


D. VOR/DME

B. Non-precision

LP21 pg.7

Obstructions are depicted in which of the following sections of an Instrument Approach Chart?



A. Margin


B. Planview


C. Profile View


D. Minimums

B. Planview

LP21 pg.16

The instrument that indicates an aircraft’s degree of bank is a(n)____________



A. Attitude indicator


B. Altimeter


C. Turn coordinator


D. Heading indicator

A. Attitude indicator

LP17 pg. 20

The horizontal situation indicator is a combination of three instruments: the glide slope indicator, the VOR/LOC indicator, and the ________.



A. Magnetic compass


B. Attitude indicator


C. Automatic direction finder


D. Heading indicator

D. Heading indicator

LP17 pg.28

The altimeter depends on which of the following for its operation?



A. Pitot tube


B. Gyro


C. Static vent


D. Rudder

C. Static vent

LP17 pg.4

Who has the final responsibility for the course of action to be followed in an emergency?



A. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)


B. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) Specialist


C. Pilot


D. Aircraft owner

C. Pilot

LP27 pg.16

Which facility is responsible for receiving and relaying all pertinent ELT signal information to the appropriate authorities



A. AFSS


B. ARTCC


C. RCC


D. ATCT

B. ARTCC

LP27 pg.16

Which of the following is not one of the minimum information requirements for handling an emergency?



A. Nature of the emergency


B. Aircraft identification and type


C. Aircraft color


D. Pilot’s desires

C. Aircraft color

LP27 pg.9

The effective utilization of all available search and rescue facilities, including federal, state, and local efforts, is described by the ________.



A. Rescue Coordination Center (RCC)


B. Letters of Agreement


C. National Search and Rescue Plan


D. Air Force and Coast Guard

C. National Search and Rescue Plan

LP28 pg.2

The Rescue Coordination Center is operated by the ________.



A. FCC


B. ARTCC


C. ATCT


D. Military

D. Military

LP28 pg.6

The average vertical depth of this layer of the atmosphere is 36,000 feet, but varies from about 65,000 feet at the equator to 20,000 feet at the poles.



A. Troposphere


B. Tropopause


C. Stratosphere


D. Mesosphere

A. Troposphere

LP22 pg.5

At what rate does temperature decrease with height (lapse rate) in the standard atmosphere?



A. 1°c/1,000 feet


B. 2°c/1,000 feet


C. 4°c/1,000 feet


D. 8°c/1,000 feet

B. 2°c/1,000 feet

LP22 pg.6

A sinking parcel of air compresses and ________ as it encounters increasing pressure; this causes a cloud to quickly dissipate.



A. Expands


B. Warms


C. Cools


D. Narrows

B. Warms

LP22 pg.15

Which of the following is NOT considered a front?



A. Maritime Polar


B. Stationary


C. Occluded


D. Warm

A. Maritime Polar

LP22 pg.24

Which of the following is operated and staffed by the NWS?



A. ARTCC


B. AFSS


C. CWSU


D. NASA

C. CWSU

LP22 pg.38

What is the greatest single cause of fatal aviation accidents?



A. Tailwind on takeoffs and landings


B. Structural icing


C. Visual flight into IFR weather


D. Thunderstorms

C. Visual flight into IFR weather

LP23 pg.13

Convective currents are most active on ________ when winds are light.



A. Warm, spring afternoons


B. Warm, summer afternoons


C. Cold, autumn nights


D. Cold, winter nights

B. Warm, summer afternoons

LP23 pg.22

What type of turbulence is caused by any obstruction to the wind, such as buildings or mountains?



A. Physical


B. Mechanical


C. Convective


D. Clear air

B. Mechanical

LP23 pg.23

In a METAR, gusty wind is coded as a _________.



A. GW


B. W


C. WG


D. G

D. G

LP24 pg.18

TAFs are used by air traffic controllers to anticipate weather changes that will affect aircraft operations ________.



A. Within an Air Route Traffic Control Center’s (ARTCC) airspace


B. Within a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility’s airspace


C. Along specified routes of flight


D. At specified Terminals

D. At specified Terminals

LP25 pg.3

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


Which hazards are forecast for Kentucky (KY) at 1700Z?



A. IFR; strong surface winds greater than 30 knots


B. IFR; moderate turbulence below 1,000 feet


C. Moderate turbulence below 1,000 feet; low-level wind shear


D. Moderate turbulence below 10,000 feet; low-level wind shear

D. Moderate turbulence below 10,000 feet; low-level wind shear

What product is for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours?



A. AIRMET


B. FA


C. TAF


D. CWA

D. CWA

LP25 pg.41

What forecast product provides a plain language, non-technical description of weather expected to occur over an extended period ranging from several hours to two days?


A. AIRMET


B. MIS


C. SIGMET


D. WST

B. MIS

LP25 pg.45

A computer-generated forecast of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at selected times, altitudes, and locations is a(n) _________ forecast.



A. Area


B. Automated barometric information


C. Terminal aerodrome


D. Wind and temperature aloft

D. Wind and temperature aloft

LP25 pg.50

The purpose of a pilot weather report (PIREP) is ________.



A. To report a pilot’s position


B. To report meteorological conditions in flight


C. To report a pilot incident


D. To convey a pilot’s report of an accident

B. To report meteorological conditions in flight

LP26 pg.3

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


Record the intensity of the turbulence and the altitude at which it was first encountered?



A. LGT 15


B. LGT 1.5


C. LGT 150


D. LGT 015

D. LGT 015

How often are interphones and assigned frequencies to be monitored?



A. According to the level of traffic in the area


B. At half-hour intervals


C. Continuously


D. Hourly

C. Continuously

LP29 pg.3

An action to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another when the aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communication is transferred is a ________.



A. Point out


B. Handover


C. Handoff


D. Transfer

C. Handoff

LP29 pg.51

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


Which of the following represents, in order, the steps of the position relief briefing?



A. Preview position, position review, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility


B. Position review, position equipment check, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility


C. Monitor position, position equipment check, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility


D. Preview position, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility, review the position

D. Preview position, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility, review the position

LP29 pg.62

Flight progress strips are used for _______.


A. Traffic count only


B. Traffic sequencing only


C. Posting current data on air traffic


D. Traffic metering

C. Posting current data on air traffic

LP30 pg.3

On all Terminal strips, Block 5 is used for what purpose?



A. Aircraft ID


B. Aircraft type


C. Computer ID


D. Beacon code

D. Beacon code

LP30 PG.9

An authorization by air traffic control for aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace is called an ________.



A. ATC clearance


B. ATC coordination


C. ATC instruction


D. ATC advisory

A. ATC clearance

LP31 pg.3

The second duty priority of the air traffic controller is:



A. Providing additional services


B. Issuing safety alerts


C. Training developmental controllers


D. Supporting national security and homeland defense

D. Supporting national security and homeland defense

LP01 pg.20

Controllers and the flying public can find descriptions, characteristics, and uses of various NAS components in ________.



A. Aeronautical Information Manual


B. FAA Order 7110.65


C. NOTAMs


D. FAA Order 7340.2

A. Aeronautical Information Manual

LP07 pg.14

Which of the following statements regarding holding procedures is not true



A. Standard holding patterns use right turns.


B. Holding may be used for flow control.


C. A “holding fix” will always be specified by ATC when an aircraft is cleared into holding.


D. Holding pattern leg length must be specified in miles by ATC.

D. Holding pattern leg length must be specified in miles

LP04 pg.35

“A notice containing information (not known sufficiently in advance to publicize by other means) concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any component of the NAS” defines a(n) ________.



A. NOTAM


B. Supplement


C. Change


D. ALNOT

A. NOTAM

LP05 pg.6

A pilot who has filed a VFR flight plan and advised AFSS of their departure time, ________.



A. May fly through an active restricted area


B. Must close the flight plan unless landing at an airport with an operational control Tower


C. Must close the flight plan


D. May fly in IFR conditions in Class E airspace below 10,000 MSL

C. Must close the flight plan

LP14 pg.6

A "dirty configured wing" aircraft ________.



A. Has a smaller wing area, and therefore wing loading is increased per square foot


B. Has a larger wing area, and therefore wing loading is increased per square foot


C. Generates stronger vortices than when in a “clean” configuration


D. Generates weaker vortices than when in a “clean” configuration

D. Generates weaker vortices than when in a "clean" configuration

LP10 pg.6

An aircraft with a certified takeoff weight of 50,000 pounds that is operating on a return flight with little extra fuel and no passengers weighs 38,000 pounds. On this flight, this aircraft is in the ________ weight class.



A. Small


B. Medium


C. Large


D. Heavy

C. Large

LP11 pg.9

A high density altitude indicates _______.



A. You are at an airport in the mountains


B. Very dense air


C. Pilots may expect increased aircraft performance


D. Low density (thin) air

D. Low density (thin) air

LP09 pg.17

As you move north from the equator, ________.



A. Meridians of longitude converge


B. Meridians of longitude diverge


C. Parallels of latitude converge


D. Parallels of latitude diverge

A. Meridians of longitude converge

LP15 pg.9

To convert 77 minutes to the decimal equivalent of hours and minutes, ________.



A. Multiply by .87


B. Divide by .87


C. Multiply by 60


D. Divide by 60

D. Divide by 60

Often, the type of precipitation that occurs at the surface is determined by the __________.



A. Cloud type


B. Temperature/dew point spread


C. Vertical distribution of temperature


D. Jet stream

C. Vertical distribution of temperature

LP22 pg.31

"A line or narrow zone along which there is an abrupt change of wind direction" defines ________.



A. A sudden wind shift


B. A variable wind


C. The jet stream


D. A crosswind

A. A sudden wind shift

LP23 pg.9

A convective SIGMET is issued when a severe thunderstorm is observed or forecast. Which of the following conditions indicate that a thunderstorm is severe?



A. Moderate or greater turbulence


B. Surface winds of 20 knots or greater


C. Three-quarter inch hail or greater


D. Cloud tops above 30,000 feet MSL

C. Three-quarter inch hail or greater

LP25 pg.30

What is the correct phraseology for stating a heading of 40°?



A. “Heading oh four oh”


B. “Heading forty degrees”


C. “Heading zero four zero”


D. “Heading zero four zero degrees”

C. "Heading zero four zero"

LP29 pg.16

Considering the required sequence of the nine clearance items, which of the following pairs of clearance items are in the correct order?



A. Holding instructions/route of flight


B. Altitude data/any special instructions


C. Standard instrument departure/clearance limit


D. Beacon code/aircraft identification

B. Altitude data/any special instructions

LP31 pg.5

“Authorization to proceed from the point of departure to the destination under specific conditions” defines a ________ clearance.



A. Through


B. Takeoff


C. Departure


D. Cruise

C. Departure

LP31 pg.11

How do you convert local Daylight Savings Time to UTC?



A. Subtract the conversion factor.


B. Add the conversion factor, then subtract 1 hour.


C. Subtract the conversion factor, then add 1 hour.


D. Add the conversion factor, then add 1 hour.

B. Add the conversion factor, then subtract 1 hour

LP15 pg.19

The Tower/Local controller _____________.



A. Ensures VFR


B. Clears aircraft to depart and land


C. Maintains awareness of ramp activities


D. Utilizes ERAM

B. Clears aircraft to depart and land

What type of facility provides approach control service where a TRACON does not exist?



A. ATCT


B. ARTCC


C. AFSS


D. Pilot

B. ARTCC

LP01 pg.38

Standard takeoff minimums for revenue flights for aircraft having more than two engines require__________.



A. ½ SM visibility


B. 1 SM visibility


C. 1 ½ SM visibility


D. 2 SM visibility

A. ½ SM visibility

LP14 pg.20

The primary source of lift around an airfoil is _______ differential.



A. Pressure


B. Energy


C. Weight


D. Drag

A. Pressure

LP09 pg.4

This is the shape or form of a wing as viewed from above. It may be long and tapered, short and rectangular, or various other shapes.



A. Wing size


B. Wing platform


C. Delta


D. Camber

B. Wing platform

LP09 pg.11

A property of the atmosphere that does not affect air density and aircraft performance is __________.



A. Temperature


B. Wind


C. Water Vapor (humidity)


D. Altitude

B. Wind

LP09 pg.14

Helicopters generally operate within which speed range?



A. 90-160 knots


B. 100-160 knots


C. 160-250 knots


D. 300-550 knots

A. 90-160 knots

LP11 pg.7

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


N731AT has a proposed departure time of ________.



A. 0048Z


B. 1800Z


C. 1118Z


D. 2100Z

C. 1118Z

LP30 pg.14

Which of the following are basic positions in an AFSS?



A. Post-flight, Clearance Delivery, and Ground


B. Broadcast, Recorderd, and Tower


C. Preflight, Inflight, and Broadcast


D. Preflight, Departure, and Weather

C. Preflight, Inflight, and Broadcast

LP01 pg.27

Which of the following is an example of a distress condition?



A. Low fuel


B. Engine out


C. Light on


D. Panicking passenger

B. Engine out

The symptoms of hyperventilation include all of the following except:



A. Dizziness


B. Confusion


C. Nausea


D. Drowsiness

B. Confusion

LP17 pg.45

An AIRMET TANGO is used to report_________.



A. Extensive mountainous obscuration


B. Moderate turbulence


C. Moderate icing and freezing levels


D. Tornados

B. Moderate turbulence

LP25 pg.35

All of the following must use a prefix when transferring information except:



A. Air traffic control facilities


B. Dispatcher


C. Airport operator


D. Flight Service

A. Air traffic control facilities

LP31 pg.7

What weather offices, located in every ARTCC, provide meteorological consultation, forecasts, and advice to ARTCCs and other FAA facilities regarding weather impact?



A. NWS


B. CWSUs


C. AFSS


D. MISs

B. CWSUs

LP22 pg.38

Longitudinal separation is the spacing of aircraft from the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of ______ or miles.



A. Feet


B. Degrees


C. Time


D. Distance

C. Time

LP04 pg.13

In this type of separation, there are no time or distance minima per se, but separation is accomplished by aircraft avoiding each other.



A. Vertical separation


B. Lateral separation


C. Longitudinal separation


D. Visual separation

D. Visual separation

LP04 pg.25

This is a rotorcraft that for its horizontal motion depends principally on its engine-driven rotors.



A. Airship


B. Airplane


C. Glider


D. Helicopter

D. Helicopter

LP13 pg.5

Which of the following controls the tilt of the rotor blade, which controls the direction of flight?



A. Collective


B. Cyclic


C. Anti-torque pedals


D. Blades

B. Cyclic

LP09 pg.41

Jet blast is normally experienced during ground operations and during initial __________.



A. Approach


B. Takeoff roll prior to lift


C. Taxi


D. Start-up

B. Takeoff roll prior to lift

LP10 pg.24

Most CAT I aircraft generally climb at what rate?



A. 1,000 ft. per minute or less


B. 1,000-2,000 ft. per minute


C. 1,500-2,500 ft. per minute


D. 2,000-4,000 ft. per minute

A. 1,000 ft. per minute or less

LP11 pg.5

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


In the FB above, what is the forecast for wind direction and speed over EMI at 39,000 MSL?



A. Wind 290 at 81 kts


B. Wind 081 at 29 kts


C. Wind 310 at 129kts


D. Wind 290 at 58 kts

C. Wind 310 at 129 kts

Air masses are classified according to which properties of their source regions?



A. Location; and intensity


B. Temperature; and moisture


C. Moisture; and intensity


D. Temperature; and intensity

B. Temperature; and moisture

LP22 pg.20

It is 3 PM local standard time in New York City. What is the Zulu time?



A. 1900Z


B. 2000Z


C. 2100Z


D. 2200Z

B. 2000Z

For_______ variation, add degrees of variation.



A. West


B. East


C. South


D. North

A. West

LP15 pg.40

What will a headwind do to true airspeed?



A. It will have no effect.


B. It will increase speed.


C. It will decrease speed.


D. It will change direction.

A. It will have no effect.

LP15 pg.33

For a constant true airspeed, the indicated airspeed _________with _________ in altitude and temperature.



A. Increases; increases


B. Decreases; decreases


C. Decreases; increases


D. Increases; decreases

C. Decreases; increases

LP15 pg.24

Which change indicator group is used to indicate temporary fluctuations to forecast meteorological conditions?



A. Change


B. Advisory


C. TEMPO


D. Directive

C. TEMPO

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


According to the TAF above, when is the visibility supposed to drop to 3 statute miles?



A. 1123Z


B. 2000Z


C. 0400Z


D. 1200Z

C. 0400Z

The altimeter displays the aircraft's ________.



A. Speed


B. Velocity


C. Height


D. Direction

C. Height

All of the following are examples of an urgent condition except:



A. Low fuel


B. Radio failure


C. Light on


D. Engine out

D. Engine out

LP27 pg.5

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


What phenomenon is described at the end?



A. Broken cloud coverage


B. Moderate turbulence


C. Wind shear


D. Thunderstorm

B. Moderate turbulence

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


Which condition is not included in the SIGMET?



A. Severe turbulence


B. Turbulence below 12,000 feet


C. Strong thunderstorms


D. Strong low level winds

C. Strong thunderstorms

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


The possible wind gusts are__________.



A. 40 knots


B. 45 knots


C. 50 knots


D. 60 knots

D. 60 knots

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


The CWA is valid until__________.



A. 3rd at 2140 Local


B. 3rd at 2140Z


C. 3rd at 2340 Local


D. 3rd at 2340Z

D. 3rd at 2340Z

The AAC Tower has negotiated a new contract with the local hospital regarding traffic patterns for air ambulances. This information would be found in which document?



A. Letter of Agreement


B. Standard Operating Procedure


C. 7110.65


D. Hospital directory

A. Letter of Agreement

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


The inner marker is located _________ from the final approach fix.



A. 0.1 NM


B. 0.9 NM


C. 1 NM


D. 4.4 NM

D. 4.4 NM

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


What does this symbol represent?



A. VOR


B. VOR/DME


C. TACAN


D. VORTAC


C. TACAN

LP19 pg.14

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


This symbol represents a(n) _________.



A. Other-than-hard surface runway


B. Hard-surfaced runway 1,500ft. to 8,069 ft. in length


C. Hard-surfaced runways greater than 8,069 ft. or some multiple runways less than 8,069ft.


D. Hard-surfaced runway configuration with a VOR, VOR/DME, or VORTAC location.

C. Hard-surfaced runways greater than 8,069 ft. or some multiple runways less than 8,069 ft.

To indicate a clearance void time on a flight strip, which marking is appropriate?



A.


B.


C. CV


D. V<

D. V<

LP30 pg.21

Select magnifying glass (lower left) to see full question and choices.


What class airspace is depicted on the chart above?



A. Class A


B. Class B


C. Class C


D. Class D

B. Class B