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300 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Damage to the brain brought about by trauma rather than congenital or chronic degenerative disease. 

Traumatic Brain Injury

Any condition that causes seizures often related to some kind of neurologic damage in the shape of tumors, head injuries or infectious epilepsy. 

Seizure Disorders

Collection of problems including insomnia, sleep apnea, restless leg syndrome, narcolepsy & circadian rhythm disruption (difficulty getting enough  sleep)

Sleep Disorders

____ is another name for a nerve cell


What is the best description of disinfection?

a.  destruction of all microorganisms within a given field

b.  use of measures to promote health & prevent disease

c.  destruction of microorganisms through direct exposure to chemical or physical agents

d.  the prevention of infection through the inhibition of microorganism growth


What are some possible consequences of chronic inflammation?

a.  abscesses, calcium deposits, heterotopic ossificans

b.  fistulae, excessive scar tissue, strictures

c.  ulcers, stasis, dermatitis, poor circulation

d.  bleeding, anemia, low platelets


What is the best description of boils?

a.  local staphylococcal infections of the skin

b.  systemic streptocolical infections that begin at the hairshaft

c.  local slow growing viral infection

d.  systemic agressive viral infections


What is cellulitis?

a.  systemic streptococcal infection that begins in the skin

b.  a systemic & agressive viral infection of the skin

c.   a local staphylococcal infection of the hair shaft

d.  a slow-growing viral infection of the skin


What is the causative agent for ringworm?

a.  dermatophyte

b.  virus

c.  bacterium

d.  parasitic worm


Tinea corporis usually looks like:

a.   scaly red rings that are pale in the middle & appear on trunk or extremities

b.  bald patches on scalp

c.  blisters & itching between toes

d.  an itchy rash in the groin


After a primary outbreak, what happens to the herpes simplex virus?

a.   it moves from affecting mouth to genitals

b.  goes into dormancy in the affected nerve root

c.  it is eradicated from the body

d.  creates subsequent outbreaks in a monthly pattern of flare & remission


What is true about genital herpes simplex?

a.  it decreases the risk of transmision of HIV

b.  it appears only on the penis or inside the vaginal canal

c.  it can appear anywhere around the groin or buttocks

d.  it is more communicable than oral herpes simplex


What is impetigo?

a.  animal parasite

b.  viral infection

c.  bacterial infection

d.  fungal infection


The causative agent for scabies?

a.   virus that causes genital herpes

b.  a parasitic worm

c.  a microscopic mite

d.  easily visible insects


The diagnostic feature associated with head lice?

a.  easily detected colonies of insects 

b.  bald patches on the scalp

c.  characteristic lesions on the scalp

d.  presence of nits in the hair


Warts are:

a.  slow growing bacterial infections

b.  slow growing viral infections

c.  slow growing fungal infections

d.  caused by animal parasites


What is acne rosacea?

a.  sign of alcoholism

b.  chronic infection of sebaceous glands

c.  idiopathic skin condition

d.  acute infection of sebaceous glands


When acne affects adolescents, it is usually associated with:

a.  poor hygiene

b.  high fat diet

c.  excessive estrogen production

d.  excessive testosterone production


Which lesions are associated with acne?

a.  whiteheads, verruca vulgaris, st anthony's fire

b.  pimples, tinea corporis, furuncles

c.  pimples, comedones, cysts

d.  blackheads, seborrhea, onychomycosis


Contact irritant dermatitis occurs:

a.  only in persons allergic to latex

b.  only in person allergic to nickel

c.  only in persons allergic to soap & other substances

d.  in anyone who repeatedly uses harsh chemicals or other irritants without protecting skin


Another name for hives:

a.  neurodermatitis

b.  erysipelas

c.  tinea corpis

d.  urticaria


Psoriasis typically runs into which patterns:

a.  episodes of unremitting itchiness

b.  outbreak never followed by another

c.  periodic periods of flare & remission

d.  chronic lesions that reach a level of severity & then never change


The leading cause of death by skin cancer is:

a.  actinic keratosis

b.  squamous cell carcinoma

c.   malignant melanoma

d.  basal cell carcinoma


Decubitus Ulcers are usually the result of

a.  poor circulation to the skin around points of bony contact with surface

b.  infection with helicobacter pylori

c.  spinal cord injury

d.  poor circulation to the skin because of severely blocked arteries & arterioles


Keloid scars occur when:

a.  skin injuries heal inefficiently

b.  deep injuries create an abundance of scar tissue that overflows into epidermis

c.  third-degree burns heal with contracted connective tissue

d.  scar tissue doesn't stay within boundaries of the skin injury


Used massage for stiff joint & wound healing after surgery

Ambrose Pare

The thumb is an example of this type of joint

a.  hinge

b.  saddle

c.  pivot

d.  ball & socket


The malleolus is formed by what two bones?

a.  tibia & fibula

b.  femur & tibia

c.   humerus & ulna

d.  femur & fibula


What is the definition of a foramen?

a.  depression

b.  hollow

c.  hole thru a bone

d.  four men gathered together


Where is the medullary cavity found:

a.  within the diaphysis

b.  within the abdominal cavity

c.  within the cranium

d.  within the thoracic cavity


What is another name fo the hip?

a.  Coxae (innominate)

b.  coccyx

c.  mandible

d.  manubrium


The elbow & the knee are 2 examples of this type of joint. 

a.  synarthrotic

b.  amphiarthrotic

c.  hinge

d.  saddle


What are the head, neck and torso referred to as:

a.  axial skeleton

b.  appendicular skeleton

c.  atlas skeleton

d.  axon skeleton


What are the 3 divisions of the pelvic girdle?

a.   ilium, ischium and pubis

b.  manubrium, body, typhoid process

c.  iliacus, iliopsoas, pecs

d.  iliad, idiom, publix


Which lists gives examples of long bones?

a.   humerus, femur, clavicle and tibia

b.  carpals, tarsals ribs, sternum

c.  cranial, facial, ossicles, vertebrae

d.  patella, popliteal, ribs, sternum


What is the longest muscle in the body?

a.  latissimus dorsi

b.  quadriceps

c.  sartorius

d.  Iliotibial Tract


Myofilaments are arranged in compartments called:

a.  myofibrils

b.  agonists

c.  visceral

d.  sarcomeres


The liver makes _____ to help with blood clotting

a.  heparin, prothrombin thrombin

b.  leukocytes & eosinophils

c.  vitamin K

d.  thyrolin & thyrosine


The simplest nerve receptors _______

a.  are found through out the stomach tissue

b.  are free nerve endings that sense touch and pain

c.  die very easily if you are dehydrated

d.  also carry blood to the organs


The ovaries are paired ______ located in the upper pelvic cavity on each side of the uterus

a.  intestines

b.  glands

c.  appendages

d.  ducts


Which water temperature is considered tepid?

a.  45 degrees F

b.  85 degrees F

c.  100 degrees F

d.  115 degrees F


In what area is the SCM located?

a.  scalp

b.  tongue

c.  shoulder

d.  neck


Quadratus Lumborum Insertion

a.  costal cartilages lower 4 ribs, abdominal aponeurosis & linea alba

b.  costal cartilages 5, 6, 7 and xiphoid process

c.  inferior ribs and last 4 ribs

d.  12th rib, TVP L1-L4


What are the 5 facial changes that occur with aging?

Thinning lips

paling skin

wrinkles and sagging around eyes

sagging neck

jawline & mouth corners sag

What are the stones used in stone massage effective for the delivery of?

a.  cold, moisture & lotion

b.  cold, heat & mild compression

c.  lotion, oil & herbs

d.  cold, ice and pressure


Which of the following latin terms may be the origin of the acronym from which we derive the word spa?

a.  sanus per aguam

b.  servo par ora

c.  santus alumni

d.  salut per aquarius


What makes the day spa different from other types of spa facilities

a.  clients go there to lose weight

b.  clients receive same day service

c.  it provides smoking cessation treatments

d.  clients go there for medication management


What is the main purpose of paraffin?

a.  to soften the skin

b.  to hold in heat and trap in moisture

c.  to add a glow to the skin

d.  to chill sore muscles


In reflexology, where is the spine located on the foot?

a.  along the big toe side

b.  along the little toe side

c.  in the middle of the foot

d.  on the heel


In ayurveda what are the body's three fundamentals?

a.  five elements

b.  doshas

c.   A & B

d.  none of the above


Fear is the emotion of which element?

a.  wood

b.  water

c.  fire

d.  metal


What season is associated with the wood element?

a.  spring

b.  summer

c.  fall

d.  winter


The liver is what kind of organ?

a.  hollow

b.  solid


Yang is associated with which organs?

a.  hollow organs

b.  solid organs


What is energy known as in different languages?

a.  Qi, Ki, Chi

b.  Prana

c.  A & B


In what modality do you work 10 vertical zones?

a.  Thai Massage

b.  reflexology

c.  shiatsu

d.  trigger point


Who developed Lymphatic Drainage Therapy?

a.  Lewis Rudolph

b.  Don Glassey

c.  Bruno Chikly

d.  Don Curry


What modality seeks to recognize a hyperirritable spot?

a.  trager

b.  trigger point

c.  craniosacral therapy

d.  lymphatic drainage therapy


What massage modality recognizes restrictions in more superficial tissue?

a.  myofascial release

b.  polarity

c.  trager

d.  acupuncture


What massage modality uses gentle rocking?

a.  esalen

b.  trigger point

c.  swedish

d.  trager


Rolfing is based on what theory or principle?

a.  reintegration of the body

b.  structural changes in the body

c.  rebalancing of the body

d.  all of the above


What visualization technique takes the mind & body through a preplanned outcome of release of negativity

a.  Qi

b.  Reiki

c.  Healing Touch

d.  Guided Imagery


What is a recording of the electrical currents of the brain?

a.  Electroencephalogram

b.  MRI

c.  Skull Xray

d.  electrocardiogram


Meditation can be as _____ as the person doing it

a.  inappropriate

b.  relaxing

c.  ageless

d. individual


What is the state reached by having a calm mind?

a.  relaxation response

b.  alternative realities

c.  biofeedback

d.  chanting


What you hold in your mind or thoughts can control how your _____ reacts

a.  friend

b.  future

c.  body

d.  purpose


What attitude is NOT a possible contributor to an unbalanced lifestyle?

a.  get more

b.  go more

c.  relax more

d.  work more


What kind of changes trigger our body's fight or flight response?

a.  planned & happy

b.   dangerous or life threatening

c.  adrenal gland warnings

d.  lethargic mood swings


What field of science & method of what are neuropeptides

a.  thinking cells

b.  chemical messengers

c.  rows of cells

d.  nerves


What field of science & method of treatment that understood the mind-body interaction emerged in the 70's?

a.  psychopump

b.  immunology

c.   neurology

d.  psychoneuroimmunology


What does eating a balanced food diet lead to?

a.  better weight control

b.  high energy levels

c.  healthy living

d.  all of the above


How many servings of grains per day does the American food pyramid recommend?

a.  2-10

b.  2-4

c.  6-11

d.  8-12


When foods reach the stomach, what begins to breakdown protein?

a.  hydrochloric acid & pepsin

b.  potassium & phosphates

c.  sodium & amylase

d.  ptyalin & saliva


What is the layer of tight cell-to-cell walls used to protect the brain called?

a.  bone calcium barrier

b.  non brain barrier

c.  blood toxin barrier

d.  blood brain barrier


What eating disorder is characterized by extreme weight loss and an aversion to food?

a.   amylophagia

b.  anorexia nervosa

c.  bulimia

d.  artherosclerosis


Which of the following dietary conditions can lead to the development of osteoporosis?

a.  not enough dietary fiber

b.  low calcium intake

c.  too much fat in diet

d.  eating too much salt


Which of the substances in food is most often considered a contributor to high blood pressure?

a.  cholesterol

b.  sugar

c.  sodium-salt

d.  calcium


Which of the following choices represents the best way to lose weight?

a.  not eating at bedtime

b.   taking diet pills

c.  eating fewer calories

d.  eating empty calories


Pain resulting from malocclusion (poor alignment) is indicative of which disease?

a.  temperomandibular joint

b.  Fibromyalgia

c.  Thoracic Outlet syndrome

d.  none of the above


Tests for TOS are Wright's test and which other?

a.  Tennel's test

b.  Phalen's test

c.  Adson's test

d.  none of the above


In Thoracic Outlet Syndrome, transverse process of the cervical vertebrae grow longer than normal.  Extending into territory where they do not belong. 


A.  True

B.  False


Carpal Tunnel syndrome involves entrapment of which nerve?

a.  ulnar

b.  radial 

c.  median

d.  brachial


What is whiplash also known as 

a.  C.A.D.

b.  Cervical acceleration-deceleration

c.  a & b

d.  torticollis


Torticollis is also known as wryneck?

a.  True

b.  false


Where are FMS patients affected?

a.  head & neck

b.  shoulders

c.  low back

d.  all of the above


Fibromyalgia is closely linked to what other syndrome?

a.  Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

b.  Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

c.  Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

d.  Myofacial pain syndrome


Which plant extract is used typically for minor skin discomfort?

a.  chamomile

b.  valerian

c.  licorice

d.  aloe vera


How do boils usually appear?

a.  in periods of predictable flare & remission

b.  one at a time

c.  in isolated clusters of disease lesions

d.  spread over large areas of the body


What is another name for plant derived drugs?

a.  phytoceutical

b.  nutraceutical

c.  pharmaceutical

d.  apothecary


What are non controlled drugs also listed as?

a.  at the drugstore

b.  controlled drugs

c.  over the counter (OTC)

d.  substances


In naming process of steroids, what are the usual last three letters of the drug?

a.  are

b.  one

c.  rhy

d.  ate


Which category of medications is used to relieve pain?

a.  antacid

b.  anticoagulant

c.  muscle relaxant

d.  analgesic


What is the primary factor of pharmacokinetics that is of importance to a massage therapist?

a.  amount absorbed into body

b.  gut motility

c.  rate & route of excretion

d.  metabolic rate


What are injections into cavity of a joint considered?

a.  intracutaneous

b.  inhalation

c.  intraarticular

d.  subcutaneous


What is a common route for administration of a drug that is applied to the skin?

a.  topical

b.  intradermal

c.  intrathecal

d.  buccal


Insulin is considered an anti-______ medication

a.  thyroid

b.  diabetic

c.  carditonic

d.  decongestant


Most of the body's communication systems are what in nature?

a.  chemical

b.  biological

c.  electrical

d.  receptors


What is toxicology the study of?

a.  the uses of drugs to treat disease

b.  poisons & their actions

c.  chemical analysis

d.  tissue damage


What is defined as the study of drugs?

a.  pharmacodynamics

b.  herbology

c.  pharmaceutical

d.  pharmacology


What does the suffix -cyte mean?


What does the suffix -algia mean?


What does the suffix -genesis mean?

development, production, creation

What does the suffix -gram mean?


What does the suffix -logy mean?

Study of

What does the suffix -megaly mean?


What does the suffix -oma mean?


What does the suffix -pathy mean?


What does the suffix -scopy mean?

Examination using a scope

What are the 3 parts of the small intestine?

a.  cecum, transverse colon, rectum

b.  fondus, body, pylorus

c.  duodenum, jejunum, ileum

d.  incisors, canines, pre molars, molars


What is the mixture of food & gastric juices called?

a.  fecal matter

b.  bile

c.  lumen

d.  chyme


What is the ring of muscle that acts like a valve called?

a.  sphincter

b.  papillae

c.  plicae

d.  uvula


What are the folds that make up the inner lining of the stomach called?

a.  chyme

b.  rugae

c.  plicae

d.  fat


Where does carbohydrate digestion begin?

a.  mouth

b.  esophagus

c.  stomach

d.  intestines


What are the 3 divisions of the stomach 

a.  fundus, body, pylorus

b.  appendix, small intestine, large intestine

c.  duodenum, jejunem, ileum

d.  appendix, gall bladder, pancreas


What are the wavelike rhythmical contractions that push food thru the gastrointestinal tract called?

a.  peritoneum

b.  deglutition

c.  peristalsis

d.  mastication


What is the hollow space in the food tube called?

a.  esophagus

b.  eustachian

c.  lumen

d.  serosa


Which structure is also known as the voicebox?

a.  larnyx

b.  pharnyx

c.  trachea

d.  mouth


What two systems are involved in gas exchange?

a.  respiratory & digestive

b.  respiratory & circulatory

c.  digestive & coronary

d.  digestive & urinary


What is the function of the kidney?

a.  store urine

b.  make urine

c.  excrete urine

d.  to pass urine


Of what are the approximately 16 to 20 c shaped rings of the trachea made of?

a.  bone

b.  muscle

c.  cartilage

d.  ligament


Which is the largest organ in the lymphatic system?

a.  tonsils

b.  thymus

c.  spleen

d.  pancreas


Which has stronger thicker walls

a.  arteries

b.  veins

c. capillaries

d.  all the same


What structure is known as the functional unit of the cardiovascular system?

a.  heart

b.  arteries

c.  veins

d.  capillaries


What hapens to blood in the lungs

a.  drops off oxygen and picks up carbon dioxide

b.  drops off carbon dioxide and picks up oxygen

c.  picks up both carbon dioxide and oxygen

d.  drops off both carbon dioxide and oxygen


What are the heart actions of contraction and relaxation called

a  contract & relax reflex

b.  systole and diastole

c.  systemic & pulmonary

d.  specific and non-specific


In which cavity is the heart located?

a.  abdominal

b.  dorsal

c.  mediastinum

d.   pelvic


What is the primary function of the skin?

a.  odor release

b.  protection

c.  tanning

d.  identification


Touch deprivation is one of the leading causes of agression in children

a.  true

b.  false


In a recent study conducted by Touch Research Institute, mothers receiving massage during labor experienced decrease levels of:

a.   anxiety

b.  pain

c.  hunger

d.  a and b


Some of the most stressed muscles during prenancy are trapezius, erector spinae, quadratus lumborum and

a.  psoas

b.  gastrocnemius

c.  serratus anterior

d.  rhomboids


From the 13th to the 23rd week of pregnancy, the sidelying position is preferred because of what structure?

a.  fetal position

b.  inferior vena cava

c.  bladder

d.  uterus


Which of the following circulatory changes take place during pregnancy?

a.   pulse rate increases

b.  heart murmurs

c.  heart palpitations

d.   all of the above


List 5 steps you can take to ensure the client is satisfied?



focus on client

warm and comfortable

use accessories


What would be a good choice of lubricants for a pregnant woman?

a.  shea or cocoa butter

b.  comfrey oil

c.  myrrh oil

d.  creme with cinnamon oil


Which hormone stimulates uterine growth?

a.  human chorlonic gonadotropin

b.   thyroxin

c.  estrogen

d.  calcitonin


Swedish massage with its effleurage & petrissage strokes is always the best modality to use with hospice patients.

a.  true

b.  false


Massage in the hospice setting offers which of the following benefits?

a.  relief from pain

b.  relief from insomnia

c.  relief from nausea & constipation

d.  all of the above


It is extremely important to obtain client history on seniors, especially knowledge of:

a.  any medications being taken

b.  age

c.  weight

d.  height


When working with seniors it is important to listen with your ears, hands, and _____

a.  heart

b.  conscience

c.  wallet

d.  all of the above


Spondylosis usually occurs:

a.  in the most mobile parts of the spine

b.  in the most stable parts of the spine

c.  in the sacroiliac joint

d.  all throughout the spine


A bunion forms when:

a.  the 1st toe is laterally deviated and the bursa overlying the joint is inflamed

b.  walking barefoot & wearing shoes with inadequate support cause the fascia on plantar surface of foot to rip

c.  a person has to kneel for prolonged periods as part of an occupation

d.  the tenosynovial sheath that protects the toe extensions becomes irritated & inflamed


Massage with a person with bursitis

a.   should be followed with ice to reduce pain & inflammation

b.  should be avoided altogether until the inflammation subsides

c.  should avoid the affected area until the inflammation has subsided

d.  should address the affected area to reduce pain & inflammation


Another name for dupuytren's contracture is:

a.  ganglion cyst

b.  de Gluervain tenosynovitis

c.  plantar fasciitis

d.  palmar fasciitis


A client with a ganglion cyst should 

a.  receive ice massage on cyst to reduce inflammation

b.  receive stretching with longitudinal strokes to blend the cyst back into the tenosynvial sheath

c.  receive massage but not directly on cyst

d.  receive friction directly on the cyst to help it dissipate


A distinguishing feature of osteogenesis imperfecta is:

a.  general muscle weakness

b.  easily fractured bones

c  enlarged bones in lower extremity

d.  dwarfism


Reflex massage is indicated during pregnancy?

a.  true

b.  false


Soleus Origin

a.  medial epicondyle femur

b.  posterior fibula

c.  soleal line, posterior head & upper shaft of fibula

d.  lateral epicondyle femur


Gastrocnemius Origin

a.  lateral condyle femur

b.  soleal line tibia, posterior head and upper shaft of fibula

c.  medial epicondyle femur, lateral epicondyle femur

d.  lateral epicondyle femur


Tibialis Posterior Insertion

a.   posterior medial tibial condyle

b.  posterior proximal tibial shaft

c.  anterior proximal tibial shaft

d.   navicular & adjacent tarsals & metatarsals on plantar surface


Flexor Digiti Minimi Brevis Insertion

a.  base of 5th metatarsal

b.  base 1st metatarsal (plantar), base 1st cuneiform (plantar)

c.  base proximal 1st

d.  base proximal 5th


Which muscle?

Action:   extend 2nd to 5th fingers, assist extend wrist

Origin:   common extensor tendon from lateral epicondyle humerus

Insert;  Middle & distal phalanges 2nd to 5th fingers

Extensor Digitorum 

Which muscle?

Action:  flex 1st toe, weak plantar flex ankle, invert foot

Origin:   Middle half posterior fibula

Insert:  Distal phalange 1st toe

Flexor Hallucis Longus

Which muscle?

Action:  Extend 2nd to 4th toes

Origin:  Calcaneus (dorsal)

Insert:  2nd - 4th toes via extensor digitorum longus tendons

Extensor Digitorum Brevis

Which muscle?

Action:  Laterally rotate hip, ABDuct hip when hip is flexed

Origin:  Anterior surface of sacrum

Insert:  Greater Trochanter


Which muscle?

Action:  ABDuct 1st toe, assist to flex 1st toe

Origin:  Calcaneus (plantar)

Insert:  Proximal phalange of 1st toe & medial sesamoid bone

Abductor Hallucis

Occipitofrontalis Origin

a.  frontalis:  skin & fascia eyebrows, occipitalis:  nuchal line of occipital bone

b.  maxilla

c.  maxilla, mandible, lips, buccinator

d.  lateral surface of temporal bone


Gluteus Maximus Insertion

a.  gluteal tuberosity of femur & iliotibial tract

b.  greater trochanter of femur

c.  anterior surface of greater trochanter of femur

d.  lesser trochanter of femur


Which band of connective tissue forms the roof the carpal tunnel

a.  pisohamate ligament

b.  palmar radiocarpal ligament

c.  radial collateral ligament

d.  flexor retinaculum


Which muscles of the spine are most superficial

a.  suboccipitals

b.  splenius muscles

c.  transversospinalis

d.  erector spinae


Which muscles can be outlined by finding the SP of C2, TVP C1 and the space between the superior nuchal line & C2.

a.  transversospinalis

b.  erector spinae

c. splenius capitis and cervicis

d. suboccipitals


Which edge of the Quadratus Lumborum is most accessible?

a.  posterior 

b.  lateral 

c.  inferior 

d.  superior


Which suboccipital muscle does not attach at the occiput?

a.  oblique capitis inferior

b.  rectus capitis posterior major

c.  rectus capitis posterior minor

d.  oblique capitis superior


Which of the following is actually an abdominal muscle located on the posterior side of the thorax?

a.  transverse abdominis

b.  latissimus dorsi

c.  iliocostalis

d.  quadratus lumborum


What could you ask your partner to do so you can differentiate between the quadratus lumborum and the erector spinae?

a.  twist to the right

b.  arch your back

c.  hike up your hip

d.  do an abdominal crunch


When are the only muscles with fibers that lie across the posterior surface of the sacrum?

a.  quadratus lumborum

b.  multifidi

c.  spinalis

d.  rotatores


Which muscle acts as a synergist with the internal oblique & during flexion of the vertebral spine?

a.  rotatores

b.  semispinalis capitis

c.  longissimus

d.  external oblique


When exploring between the scapulae which muscle tissue must you palpate to access erector spinae fibers?

a.  trapezius & rhomboids

b.  latissimus dorsi

c.  serratus anterior & posterior

d.  rotatores and multifidi


Which section of the vertebral column is comprised of 12 vertebrae?

a.  cervical

b.  thoracic

c.   lumbar

d.  coccyx


The thorax is composed of what two structures?

a.  vertebrae & rib cage

b.  sternum and rib cage

c.  sternum and clavicle

d.  TVP and SP


How many ribs on each side of the body?

a.  8

b.  10

c.  12

d.  14


The hind foot is union of what two bones?



The foot contains how many bones?


What is the bone at the heel of the foot?


How many metatarsals?

How many phalanges



What bony landmarks are the large conspicuous knobs on either side of the ankle?

Where do they come from?

Lateral malleolus

medial malleolus

Distal ends of tibia and fibula

Which bone is beneath the talus & protects 2" posteriorly from malleoli?


What are the two "calf" muscles?



What are the 2 muscles on the lateral side of the calf?

Peroneus Longus

Peroneus Brevis

What are the extensor muscles located on anterior leg & dorsum of the foot?

Tibialis Anterior

Extensor Digitorum Longus

Extensor Hallucis Longus

Flexors of the ankle & toes on posterior leg?

Tibialis Posterior

Flexor Digitorum Longus

Flexor Hallucis Longus

What muscle is called the "second heart" because its important role, its strong contractions play in returning blood to the heart?


What muscle has a short muscle belly but longest tendon in the body


Superficial band stretching between ASIS & pubic tubercle.  Superior border of femoral triangle and lower edge of abdominal aponeurosis?

Inguinal Ligament

What two muscles comprise Iliopsoas?


Psoas Major

A solid deposit of crystalline substances inside the kidney.  Symptoms none to extreme pain 

Kidney stones

Over the counter medications refers to the drugs you buy where?

a.  at grocery store

b.  with a prescription

c.  self-prescribed

d.  online


Type of alternating tapotement that strikes the surface of the body with quick snapping movements


What does the prefix angi(o)- mean?


Teres Major Origin

a.  inferior angle of scapula

b.  upper axillary border of scapula

c.  deltoid tuberosity of humerus

d.  root of spine scapula


Pronator Teres Origin
a.  humeral:  medial epicondyle & ulnar, coronoid process & common flexor tendon

b.  distal 1/4 anterior ulna

c.  distal 1/4 anterior radius

d.  bases of proximal phalanx or thumb, medial side


Adductor Hallucis Action

a.  Flex MP joint 1st toe

b.  ADDuct, flex MP joint 1st toe

c.  Flex, ADDuct 5th toe MP joint

d.  Flex 1st toe & plantar flex ankle


Semispinalis Origin

a.  cervical & thoracic SP, occipital bone

b.  cervical & thoracic TVP, mastoid process

c.  cervical & thoracic TVP

d.  Cervical & thoracic TVP, occipital


Biceps Brachii - origin

a.  coracoid process of scapula - medial border of superior surface

b.  Infraglenoid tubercle,  posterior humerus above spiral groove

c.   Coracoid process and supraglenoid tubercle scapula

d.  lateral supracondylar ridge humerus


The "fight or flight" response to stress is an activation of which part of the nervous system?

a.  somatic

b.  parasympathetic

c.  sympathetic

d.  voluntary


Part of the brain controlling "vital functions"

a.  cerebrum

b.  diencephalon

c.  cerebellum

d.  brain stem


Nerve bundle which passes between the anterior & middle scalene muscles as it moves toward the axilla

a.  cervical plexus

b.  lumbrosacral plexus

c.  brachial plexus

d.  phrenic nerve


What is the best description of inflammation?

a.  Reaction to pathogenic invasion

b.  the formation of abscesses around the site of infection

c.  swelling with pain & pus

d.  response to damage or threat of infection


Most cells in the body are nourished by

a.  filtration

b.  diffusion

c.  pinocytosis

d.  osmosis


Which of the following is often a major factor in beginning the process of developing artherosclerosis

a.  hypertension

b.  thrombophlebitis

c.  stroke

d.  aneurysm


If a therapist has broken skin on the fingers, hands, forearms or elbows or comes into contact with body fluids such as blood, mother's milk, or semen, the handwashing procedure should take how long?

a.  15 seconds

b.  30 seconds

c.  1 minute

d.  2 minutes


Where are apocrine sweat glands located?

What do they do?

Primarily in what 2 regions?

Hairy areas

secrete odor in times of stress

axillary and groin

Breasts are ______ glands

The ring of pigmented skin surrounding the nipple is ________

Each gland contains _____ to ______ lobes around the nipples

Attach to underlying muscle & fascia & to overlying skin via _______



15 25


What are the 3 main pigments involved in skin color?




Melanin is found in the _________

Ranges in color from ______ to ________

We all have the same number of _______ however, the amount of melanin produced depends on

_______ ________ and ________ to _____ ________

It is a natural ________

Increase can produce? (3)


Yellow black


genetic factors, exposure to UV light


moles, freckles and age spots

Carotene is a ______ pigment found in _______

Naturally gives skin a _____ tint

Increased consumption of plant food containing high amounts of Carotene can cause temporary ________

Yellow, dermis



Hemoglobin is a oxygen-carrying _______ pigment molecule in the ______

In those with light skin it shows thru as ______




Localized bacterial infections of the skin.  Causative agent is usually staphylococcus aureus single postules or clustered as carbuncles


Streptococcus infection that kills skin cells, leading to painful inflammation of the skin.  Usually face or lower leg.  Redness, tenderness, fever and headache


Viral infection resulting in cold sores or fever blisters on face, around mouth or genitals, thighs, buttucks.

Herpes Simplex

Pectineus Action

Adduct hip

Flex hip

Masseter Action

Elevate mandible

Retract mandible

Human Growth Hormone



Pituitary Anterior

Synthesizes protein for muscle and bone growth; metabolism

Tough membrane that interconnects select bones by attaching to their periosteum

Interosseous Ligaments





Prepares endometrium for pregnancy





Softens connective tissue of pregnant woman for fetal delivery

What is the epiphysial line?

Replaces epiphyseal plate when bone growth is complete

What ligament is a strong, thin strap that crosses the knee joint from the lateral epicondyle of femur to the head of the fibula?


Protects from?

Fibular collateral ligament

Bow legged

Transverse Abdominis Insertion

Linea alba, abdominal fascia

Small Intestine meridian begins?

Little finger

Specific immunity calls on _________ cells to help when pathogens reappear.  Body is able to recognize many different ________

When an _____ is identified, a complex reaction with highly specialized cells called? (2)

The ______ is bound by ______ and "______" for destruction.  _____ are cells that recognize & destroy these specific molecules. 




T cells and B cells

antigen, antibodies, marked 


If I have tina cruris, I have:

a.  shingles

b.  athlete's foot

c.  jock itch

d.  hives


Massage for client with interstitial cystitis is:

a.  indicated as long as client can be made comfortable

b.  indicated with doctor's permission

c.  contraindicated until all signs of infection have passed

d.  indicated when client is taking antibiotics


Under development of a tissue or organ usually due to a decrease in the number of cells


What type of heat produces an analgesic effect

Mild heat

Spinalis Origin

a.  cervical & thoracic TVP, occipital bone

b.  cervical & thoracic SP, occipital bone

c.  sacrum, PSIS, TVP all vertebrae

d.  ligamentum nuchae, cervical & thoracic SP


Which muscle?

Action:  Extend vertebral column & head

Origin:  TVP thoracic vertebrae, articular processes of lower cervicals

Insert:  SP of upper thoracic & cervicals (except C-1) and superior nuchal line of occiput


What is included in upper respiratory tract?

What is included in lower respiratory tract?

Nose and sinus cavities, pharnyx

Larnyx, trachea, bronchiole, alveoli

Which muscle?

Action:  Uni:  laterally deviate mandible to opp side.  Bi:  elevate mandible, protract mandible

Origin:  medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone and tuberosity of mandible

Insert:  Angle and ramus of mandible

Medial Pterygoid

Which muscle?

Action:  Uni:  laterally deviate mandible to opp side  Bi:  protract mandible

Origin:  Infratemporal surface & crest of greater wing sphenoid bone.  lateral surface of lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid

Insert:  Articular disc of TMJ capsule, neck of mandible

Lateral Pterygoid

What does the suffix -trophy mean?

Nourish, grow, develop

Which movement of the vertebral column will lengthen the fibers of multifidi on the right side

a.  rotation to the right

b.  rotation to the left

c.  extension

d.  lateral flexion to the right


What is another name for Dystonia of Sternocleidomastoid?

Dystonia of vocal cords?

Dystonia with repetitive blinking & squinting eyes?

Dystonia in hand?

Spasmodic Torticollis

Vocal Dystonia


Writer's Cramp

Which foot bone articulates with the tibia and the fibula?

What joint?


Talocrural Joint

Who wrote about mechanotherapeutics?

Edgar Cyriax

Father of neuomuscular therapy?

a.  Jack Meagher

b.  Andrew Taylor Still

b.  W.G. Sutherland

d.  Dr. Stanley Lief


Founded psychotherapeutic body techniques?

Wilhelm Reich

The lateral rotators of the hip share a common attachment on or very near which bony landmark?

Greater Trochanter

What is the largest synovial joint in the body?

What kind of joint?

tibiofemoral joint (knee)

modified hinge

Cluster of nerve cell bodies found in the peripheral nervous system?


Plantaris Origin

a.  lateral condyle femur

b.  lateral condyle & lateral shaft tibia, interosseous membrane

c.  anterior shaft of fibula and interosseous membrane

d.  lateral epicondyle femur


Which muscle?

Action:  Weak plantar flex ankle, weak flex knee

Origin:  Lateral condyle of femur

Insert:  Calcaneus via calcaneal tendon


To destroy all organisms on surgical instruments, you should:

a.  chlorine soak to disinfect

b. separate/dispose on infected person

c.  sterilization pressurized steam bath

d.  wash with soapy water


Vince had too much to drink.  He should wait

a.  6 hrs direct 12 hrs indirect

b.  8 hrs direct, 18 hrs indirect

c.  12 hrs direct, 24 hrs indirect

d.  24 hrs direct, 48 hrs indirect


Movement of dissolved substance from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration


Which shoulder movement would lengthen fibers of teres minor

a.  flexion

b.  lateral rotation

c.  ADDuction

d.  horizontal ABDuction


Tibialis Anterior Action

Dorsiflex ankle

Invert foot

Another term for stroke is 

a.  cerebrovascular accident

b.  cerebrospinal obstruction

c.  ischemic cerebral attack

d.  myocardial infarction


Tibialis Anterior Origin

a.  lateral condyle & lateral shaft tibia, interosseous membrane

b.  lateral epicondyle femur

c.  posterior fibula

d.  lateral condyle femur


Peroneus Brevis - Origin

a.  posterior tibia

b.  lateral condyle femur

c.  lower 2/3 lateral shaft fibula

d.  upper 2/3 head and lateral shaft fibula


Peroneus Longus - Origin

a.  lateral condyle & lateral shaft of tibia, interosseous membrane

b.  upper 2/3 head and lateral shaft of fibula

c.  base of metatarsal great toe

d.  lateral epicondyle femur


Scapula, clavicle, head & jaw movement

Structure moves anteriorly?

Structure moves posteriorly?



The mechanical and chemical breakdown of food from its complex form into simple molecules


Situation in which all of the fibers in the spinal cord have been damaged by trauma, or bony growths in spinal canal

Spinal Cord Injury

Neurobiochemical imbalance in the brain resulting in problems with focus, impulse control and motor activity.  It occurs among children and adults?

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

Use of material in methods or dosages that result in damage to the user & people whom the user contacts.

Chemical dependency

Umbrella term covering a number of mood disorders that can result in persistent feelings of sadness, guilt of hopelessness


Group of psychological problems involving compulsions around food and weight gain or loss

Eating disorders

Adductor Magnus Origin

a.  anterior and lateral femoral shaft

b.  inferior ramus of pubis

c.  inner surface of femur

d.  inferior ramus pubis, ischial tuberosity and ramus of ischium


Which muscle?

Action:  Unilaterally elevate scapula, downward rotate scapula, laterally flex head and neck, rotate head/neck to same side

Origin:  TVP C1-C4

Insert:  Upper region of medial border & superior angle scapula

Levator Scapula

Extensor Digitorum Longus - Insertion

a.  extensor expansion 4 lateral toes

b.  middle & distal phalange 4 lateral toes

c.  tendons flexor digitorum longus

d.  middle phalanges 4 lateral toes


Muscular, collapsible tube located behind the trachea that extends from the pharnyx to the stomach. 


J shaped, saclike organ that lies beneath the diaphragm & empties into the duodenum


Small (3-4 inch) sac on the under surface of the liver that stores and contracts bile?

Gall Bladder

Located on the posterior wall of the abdomen, against the back of the body wall musculature and just above the waist.  They are one of the major homeostatic devices of the body. 


Two narrow tubes that extend from the kidney and connect to the bladder


What does the suffix -iasis mean?

Condition of

What does the suffix -ectomy mean?

Excision, removal of

What does the suffix -asis mean?

Condition usually abnormal

What does the prefix enter(o)- mean?


What does the prefix phleb- mean?


What does the suffix -pnea mean?


What does the prefix pneum(o)- mean?

Lung, air, gas

Splenius Capitis Insertion

a.  thoracolumbar aponeurosis, lumbar & thoracic TVP

b.  cervical & thoracic SP, occipital bone

c.  mastoid, occipital bone

d.  cervical & thoracic TVP


Union, bliss & sense of empathy

a.  solar plexus

b.  sacral

c.  crown

d.  3rd eye


Masseter Insertion

Angle and ramus of mandible

Gracilis Origin

Inferior rami of pubis

Adductor Longus Insertion

medial lip linea aspera of femur

What is the strongest hip flexor?

a.  rectus abdomiis

b.  rectus femoris

c.  bicep femoris

d.  iliopsoas


Widespread outbreak of a contagious disease


What is the mechanism that pushes waste-filled plasmas into the kidneys?

The speed with this happens is called?

Normal rate is?


Glomerular Filtration Rate

120 ml/min

Muscle of plantar flexion that attaches below the knee


Toe dancer's muscle?


What is the prefix that means within?

What term describes within cells?



What is the suffix that means to dissolve?

What term describes self-dissolution?



What is the suffix that means abnormal or excessive flow?

What term describes excessive lipid in the feces?



What gland produces adrenocorticotropic hormone?


Pituitary Anterior

Regulates endocrine activity of Adrenal Cortex and cortisol secretion

An idiopathic disease that involves the destruction of myelin sheaths around both motor and sensory neurons in the central nervous system.

Multiple sclerosis

Opponens Pollicis Action

Flex thumb 

ADDuct thumb

Imbalances of the Pericardium meridian?


Emotional disturbances

Circulatory disorders

Anterior Scalene Origin


Pectineus Origin

Superior ramus of pubis

Temporalis Insertion

Coronoid process mandible

Splenius Capitis Origin

Nuchal ligament

SP C7-T3

Extension of spine

a.  teres major

b.  interspinalis

c.  supraspinatus

d.  trapezius


What is the name of the anterior curve of the vertebral column in the neck?

a.  thoracic kyphosis

b.  thoracic lordosis

c.  cervical kyphosis

d.  cervical lordosis


Sartorius Insertion

Medial proximal tibial shaft

What are the 3 muscles of the hamstrings?



Biceps Femoris

Which ligament holds 2 processes together on the scapula

Coracoacromial ligament

The fibers of which muscle blend with deltoid & attach to the greater tubercle

pectoralis Major

Drawing out the energy contained in food, leaving the remaining matter to be eliminated by waste. 

a.  small intestine

b.  large intestine

c.  liver

d.  bladder