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633 Cards in this Set

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The military uniform is a symbol of the nation's defense forces. Thus the word "uniform" suggests a ________.
distinctive mode of dress.
  The uniform your senior naval science instructor (SNSI) will direct you to wear on any given day is known as the __________.
     Uniform of the Day.
  Who is the only person who can approve modifications to cadets' uniforms?
     NJROTC Area Manager
What articles/items may be worn exposed when in uniform?
   no articles may be exposed
When can you wear the cover indoors?
    while on official duty
What head gear is optional for officers and chiefs as part of their NJROTC uniform?
  Combination cap
7.      In uniform, necklaces are authorized but shall not be _________.
a)      visible.
In uniform, rings are authorized, but no more than _____ may be worn on each hand.
    one
What type of facial hair is permitted to be worn by male cadets?
  trimmed mustache
10.  Male sideburns will be neatly trimmed and tailored and shall not exceed below a point level with the ___________.
    middle of the ear
Which of the following statements is true in the wearing of female earrings/studs?
  One per ear, centered on the ear lobe, must be a small gold or silver ball (post or screw on).
Female hair ornaments such as conspicuous bands, combs, and pins are not authorized. Barrettes are authorized, but must be
similar to the female hair color
The hair for females may touch the collar, but cannot fall below the horizontal level with the lower edge of the back of the collar. True or False
True
The male hair above the ears and around the neck area must be tapered upward and outward not greater than ______.
     3/4 of an inch.
  How far above and centered on the pocket buttonhole are ribbons and the name tag worn parallel to the top of the male and female short sleeve summer blue shirt?
     1/4 inch
  Sunglasses may be worn with the approval of the Naval Science Instructor and with the following restrictions:
a)      sunglasses must be conservative, b)      never worn while in formation, c)      never worn with retainer straps, d)     
  The color of the chinstrap on the combination cap for chiefs and enlisted personnel performing in the color guard is
     black.
  Rank/rate and the JROTC bar insignias are centered at what distance from the collar point on the male and female short sleeve blue shirt?
      1 and 7/8 of an inch
What color and type tee-shirt will be worn with all male NJROTC uniforms?
     Plain white crew neck or V-neck
  The male nectie, black in color is authorized fabric measuring no more than___________ wide.
    3 1/4 inches
21.  Ribbons and aiguillettes are not authorized on which of the following male and female NJROTC uniforms?
a)      Winter Working Blue
22.  What award is awarded to any cadet upon completion of the Leadership Academy or similar training, as approved by the area manager?
a)      Mini-Boot Camp Award
What ribbon award is one of the more demanding of the NJROTC awards given to the cadet who qualifies in required overland navigation by compass and map?
Orienteering Ribbon Award
24.  What award is given yearly to one cadet in each year group with the highest combined average for overall scholastic standing and aptitude in the NJROTC unit activities (academics, homework, physical fitness etc?)
a)      Distinguished Cadet Award
25.  How is the most senior ribbon worn on the uniform shirt when more than one ribbon is worn?
a)      On the top row and inboard
What is the "Rule of Thumb" when wearing a ribbon with a dark color on one end and a light color on the other end?
Dark color inboard
27.  Which one of the following awards is awarded to one cadet in each year group with the highest overall academic achievement (GPA) in school, including all naval science courses?
a)      Honor Cadet
28.  What award is given to that cadet who demonstrates an exceptional military aptitude and dedication to the NJROTC program?
a)      Military Aptitude Award
29.  What device is put on a ribbon for the fourth award?
a)      1 Silver star
30.  What award is given to the cadet that demonstrates an exceptional dedication to the NJROTC program?
a)      Distinguished Cadet Award
1.      A cadet seaman recruit can expect, when qualified, to be advanced to
a)      Cadet Seaman Apprentice
2.      Advancement to officer status requires an individual who has demonstrate superior quality leadership, integrity, personal appearance, conduct and patriotism.
a)      True
3.      Petty Officer Third Class is designated by a collar device of
a)      an eagle perched over one chevron.
4.      What is the highest rank that an NJROTC cadet can attain?
    Cadet Captain
5.      For which NJROTC rating is there no collar device?
a)      Seaman Recruit
6.      A cadet Lieutenant Commander is designated by a collar device of
a)      four attached gold bars.
7.      A reduction in rank/grade is based on unacceptable performance and is called a
a)      demotion
8.      A cadet Ensign is designated by a collar device of
a)      one gold bar.
9.      Petty Officer First Class is designated by a collar device of
a)      an eagle perched over three chevrons.
10.  Students who are entering the NJROTC program for the first time are most often assigned the grade of
a)      cadet seaman recruit.
11.  All rate and rank promotions are determined by the naval science instructor. True or False
a)      True
12.  A cadet Lieutenant (Junior Grade) is designated by a collar device of
a)      two attached gold bars.
13.  A cadet Commander is designated by a collar device of
a)      five attached gold bars.
14.  Cadet officers that have shown an aptitude for high leadership in the NJROTC program are generally in their
a)      third or fourth year.
15.  Cadet Senior Chief Petty Officer (C/SCPO) is designated by a collar device of
a)      an eagle and one star perched on a fouled anchor.
16.  A chevron on a collar device looks like
a)      the letter V.
17.  A paygrade of O-2 carries the title
a)      Lieutenant Junior Grade
18.  The lowest three enlisted pay grades are in the general apprenticeship area before advancement to petty officer pay grades.
a)      True
19.  The Navy's rate and rank structure for men and women on active duty is in some ways similar to the rate and rank structure used by the cadets in the NJROTC program.
a)      True
20.  When enlisted personnel move up to the next higher rate in their specialty, they do not receive an advancement in pay. True or False
a)      False
21.  What are the colors of the collar insignia of a Chief Warrant Officer Three (CWO3)?
a)      blue and silver
22.  What are the maximum number of stars that can be on an insignia of the Navy Chief Petty Officer rate?
a)      3
23.  How many gold stripes are on the Blue Service coat sleeve of a Captain in the Navy?
a)      4
24.  What is the collar insignia of a Navy Commander?
a)      oak leaf
25.  How many paygrade of admiral exist?
a)      4
26.  When officers move up to the next rank and paygrade, they have earned a(n) _________.
a)      promotion
1.      A cadet seaman recruit can expect, when qualified, to be advanced to
a)      Cadet Seaman Apprentice
2.      Advancement to officer status requires an individual who has demonstrate superior quality leadership, integrity, personal appearance, conduct and patriotism. True or False
a)      True
3.      Petty Officer Third Class is designated by a collar device of
a)      an eagle perched over one chevron.
4.      What is the highest rank that an NJROTC cadet can attain?
     Cadet Captain
5.      For which NJROTC rating is there no collar device?
a)      Seaman Recruit
6.      A cadet Lieutenant Commander is designated by a collar device of
a)      four attached gold bars.
7.      A reduction in rank/grade is based on unacceptable performance and is called a
a)      demotion
8.      A cadet Ensign is designated by a collar device of
a)      one gold bar.
9.      Petty Officer First Class is designated by a collar device of
a)      an eagle perched over three chevrons.
10.  Students who are entering the NJROTC program for the first time are most often assigned the grade of
a)      cadet seaman recruit.
11.  All rate and rank promotions are determined by the naval science instructor.
a)      True
12.  A cadet Lieutenant (Junior Grade) is designated by a collar device of
a)      two attached gold bars.
13.  A cadet Commander is designated by a collar device of
a)      five attached gold bars.
14.  Cadet officers that have shown an aptitude for high leadership in the NJROTC program are generally in their
a)      third or fourth year.
15.  Cadet Senior Chief Petty Officer (C/SCPO) is designated by a collar device of
a)      an eagle and one star perched on a fouled anchor.
16.  A chevron on a collar device looks like
a)      the letter V.
17.  A paygrade of O-2 carries the title
a)      Lieutenant Junior Grade
18.  The lowest three enlisted pay grades are in the general apprenticeship area before advancement to petty officer pay grades. True or False
    True
19.  The Navy's rate and rank structure for men and women on active duty is in some ways similar to the rate and rank structure used by the cadets in the NJROTC program. True or False
     True
20.  When enlisted personnel move up to the next higher rate in their specialty, they do not receive an advancement in pay. True or false
    False
21.  What are the colors of the collar insignia of a Chief Warrant Officer Three (CWO3)?
a)      blue and silver
22.  What are the maximum number of stars that can be on an insignia of the Navy Chief Petty Officer rate?
a)      3
23.  How many gold stripes are on the Blue Service coat sleeve of a Captain in the Navy?
a)      4
24.  What is the collar insignia of a Navy Commander?
a)      oak leaf
25.  How many paygrade of admiral exist?
a)      4
26.  When officers move up to the next rank and paygrade, they have earned a(n) ________.
    promotion
27.  What is the term that signifies that an enlisted person has moved up to the next higher rate?
a)      Advanced
What is called the traditional way by which salutes to ships, to high ranking individuals, to nations are carried out?
Courtesies
National flag, is displayed in or near a polling place. True or False
True
What is the preferred method of destroying a flag unfit for public display?
burning
The flag and the national anthem are symbols of _______.
all the people, their land, and their institutions.
The U.S. flag can be displayed twenty-four hours a day under which of the following situations?
When properly illuminated during the hours of darkness
The United States flag signifies a people dedicated to _______.
Liberty, Justice, freedom for all
When the flag is in such condition that it is no longer a fitting emblem for display, the flag is destroyed in a dignified way, preferably how?
Burning
It is the universal custom to display the United States flag from what start time to what ending time?
Sunrise to sunset
On what national holiday is the flag flown at half-mast until noon?
Memorial Day
How long is the salute held during the playing of the national anthem?
until the last note of the anthem
What does the term "half staff" mean?
Position of the flag is half the distance between the top and bottom of the staff
When attending an outdoor event in uniform and the U.S. flag is escorted past you, how many paces is it before you render a hand salute?
When the flag is 6 paces from you
When you are in uniform and outdoors and you hear the national anthem played and the flag is not visible, what do you do?
Stand at attention, face the music and render a salute
On a military base, at the first note of the national anthem, what should all vehicles/passengers do?
Come to a complete stop, then sit quietly until last note
What should you do if, while outdoors in civilian clothes, you hear the national anthem but the flag is not visible?
Stand at attention and face in the direction of the music
What is the position of a flag when it is flown at "Half-Staff"?
one-half the distance between the top and the bottom of the staff
Why is the flag flown at half-mast?
to honor and pay respect to deceased persons of national importance
When do military formations recite the Pledge of Allegiance?
never
How many words are there in the pledge of allegiance?
31
Which of the following words of the pledge of allegiance says that our country is incapable of being divided during troublesome times?
Indivisible
Which of the following words of the pledge of allegiance describes a body of people associated with a particular territory, who are conscious of their unity?
One nation
The senior officer taking part in a ceremony is referred to as the _______
Commander of Troops
Which of the following is NOT a type of ceremony?
inspection
What is the signal for the start of the official duty day?
Reveille
A signal for the end of a duty day; also serves as a ceremony for paying respect to the flag.
Retreat
If Marine and Navy units are participating jointly in an NROTC unit's review, the Marine units are placed where, in respect to the Navy units?
ahead of
The second in command during a review is whom?
Adjutant
Which of the following is NOT a part of a formal review?
Keynote address
When performing a Pass in Review, the platoon commander executes eyes right when the platoon is within how many paces from the nearest member of the reviewing party?
6
If three services (Navy, Marine, Army,) are participating jointly in an NROTC unit's review, the order of march is
Army, Marine Corps, and Navy.
After the reviewing officer has taken his/her position in the reviewing area and the cadets are at attention, the commander of the troops commands _______in review.
PASS
The line on which the cadets are to form and along which they are to march in the review area is marked out by the
host organization for the review.
A military review consists of how many parts?
4
1. Formation of the unit
2. Presentation and honors
3. Inspection (trooping the line)
4. March in review
The proper service order of march in a review is:
Army, Marine Corps, Navy
The formal part of a review during which an inspection is made is called
Trooping the line
What is the name of the person who organizes and directs a street parade?
Grand Marshal
Why should cadets look upon participation in a parade, especially in the civilian community, as an important part of their training?
Brings credit to their school and unit
Naval science instructors and school officials can learn the condition of many aspects of training, morale, and leadership that exists in their unit by the cadets' _________.
appearance.
Personnel inspections often require a lot of
planning and preparation.
One of the positive things that personnel inspection promotes for the cadet is
pride in their units, attention to detail, self-discipline.
The best part of the personnel inspection is that the naval science instructors gets a chance to see what the cadets ___________
have learned
When the NJROTC company is forming for inspection, the company falls in by
platoons.
What is the command given by the company commander at the appointed time for inspection?
PREPARE FOR INSPECTION
What is the first action the platoon commander of the first (base) platoon gives to his/her cadets?
OPEN RANKS, MARCH
What command does the platoon commander give after verifying that the alignment is correct in the platoon?
READY FRONT, COVER
What command does the company commander give after he/she reports the company is ready for inspection?
AT EASE
What command is given by the platoon commander when the inspecting officer approaches the platoon?
ATTENTION
Upon completion of the inspection, each platoon commander faces left and orders
CLOSE RANKS, MARCH
Upon completion of the inspection of each platoon, on which command does the platoon commander move by the most direct route and takes his/her post six paces in front of the center of his/her platoon?
MARCH
What item is NOT inspected at a personnel inspection?
sword
Fingernails may be inspected at a personnel inspection. True or False
TRUE
Rules of conduct that people should follow in society are called
ethics
What is the name of the stress management program discussed in the cadet field manual?
RELIEF
The human growth and development characteristic that refers to the traits a person gets from his or her parents, such as skin coloring and height is called
heredity.
Puberty usually occurs between what ages in boys?
11 to 15 years old
Which concept below refers to a person who develops a set of beliefs, ideals, interests, likes and dislikes that govern behavior?
Value system
Puberty usually occurs between what ages in girls?
Fourteen to fifteen years old, Nine to Thirteen years old, Thirteen to sixteen years old.
Which characteristic below refers to the influence of their surroundings on a person, such as stress level and availability of nourishing food?
Environment
What is the third greatest cause of death among people aged fifteen to twenty-four?
Suicide
To which of the following symptoms (illnesses) below does stress contribute?
Heart disease, Hypertension, Withdrawal
Which human growth and development characteristic below is defined as the body's response to demands, real or imagined, in a particular situation?
Stress
Mumps, polio, chicken pox, and scarlet fever are what type of diseases?
infectious
Proper foot care includes
cleaning and drying, especially between the toes, using absorbant foot powder, wearing comfortable shoes
How often should hair be shampoo'ed?
at least once a week
The science of health is called
hygiene
A realistic weekly weight loss rate is
one-half to 2 pounds per week
What are the Five Food Groups?
milk, meat, vegetable, fruit, grain
What is the only sure method to prevent sexually transmitted diseases (STD's)?
Abstinence
For growth purposes, plaque utilizes nutrients from food, especially
sugar.
Which method below is an effective and efficient way of removing plaque from the surface of the tooth?
Flossing
Rules of conduct that people should follow in society are called
ethics
What is the name of the stress management program discussed in the cadet field manual?
RELIEF
The human growth and development characteristic that refers to the traits a person gets from his or her parents, such as skin coloring and height is called
heredity.
Puberty usually occurs between what ages in boys?
11 to 15 years old
Which concept below refers to a person who develops a set of beliefs, ideals, interests, likes and dislikes that govern behavior?
Value system
Puberty usually occurs between what ages in girls?
Fourteen to fifteen years old, Nine to Thirteen years old, Thirteen to sixteen years old.
Which characteristic below refers to the influence of their surroundings on a person, such as stress level and availability of nourishing food?
Environment
What is the third greatest cause of death among people aged fifteen to twenty-four?
Suicide
To which of the following symptoms (illnesses) below does stress contribute?
Heart disease, Hypertension, Withdrawal
Which human growth and development characteristic below is defined as the body's response to demands, real or imagined, in a particular situation?
Stress
Mumps, polio, chicken pox, and scarlet fever are what type of diseases?
infectious
Proper foot care includes
cleaning and drying, especially between the toes, using absorbant foot powder, wearing comfortable shoes
Which one of the following is described as being a thin transparent film containing bacteria that forms on the tooth surface and hardens into tartar?
Plaque
Which of the following is an important part of the health and hygiene equation and is essential to supplying the body with all the elements needed to function?
Nutrition
Which of the following health and hygiene characteristics increases the body's resistance to diseases, promotes digestive and excretory functions, and decreases your risk of heart disease?
Proper exercise
A condition of complete physical and mental well-being and freedom from disease is known as
health.
Peanut butter is an example of what food group?
Meat
What is the name of the small organ at the top of abdomen which produces insulin?
pancreas
Which of the following drugs come from a plant whose leaves contain an addictive stimulant called nicotine?
Tobacco
What do we call drugs that underground chemists sometimes try to modify the molecular structures so that they can be several hundred times stronger than the drugs they imitate?
Designer drugs
In what area of the body does alcohol decrease its ability to metabolize fat?
The liver
How many teenagers in today's society have a drinking problem?
Some 4.6 million
Alchol-related accidents are the leading cause of death among young people ages 15-24. True or False
True
What do we call the tube in which food passes from the mouth to the stomach and where alcoholics have a greater chance of developing cancer?
The esophagus
The best reason young people should avoid drug abuse is the
negative effect on the long-term well-being of the individual.
Substance abuse is ________
illegal.
Recent studies have found that 75 percent of all Americans believe that some kind of regular activity is important. True or False
FALSE
Recent studies found _____ percent of Americans believe some kind of regular activity is important.
90
Only about _____ percent of adult Americans do any kind of regular exercise.
55
Physical fitness is the ability of your whole body, including the muscles, skeleton, heart and all the other parts, to work together efficiently. True or False
TRUE
Which of the following areas is NOT one of the four areas of total fitness?
Cardiovascular fitness
Emotional fitness means being stable and self-controlled, facing reality in an honest manner and having ethical standards. True or False
TRUE
Everyone should try to achieve _____________ fitness.
total
Emotional fitness means being stable and self-controlled, facing reality in an honest manner and having ________ standards.
ethical
Which of the following areas is NOT one of the four areas of total fitness?
Cardiovascular fitness
Out of the eleven parts of physical fitness, how many are considered skill-related parts?
6
Cardiovascular fitness, strength, muscular endurance are all parts of the
health-related parts of fitness.
Under the skill-related parts to physical fitness, which part is the ability to do strength performance quickly?
Power
Before you start a vigorous exercise, you should
warm-up.
The advantage to exercising is
enjoying life, looking good, being healthy.
What physical fitness part consists of the amount of force one can put forth with your muscles?
Strength
Out of the eleven parts of physical fitness, how many are considered skill-related parts?
6
___________ is the ability to keep upright while you are standing still or moving.
Balance
_________ is the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance is a short period of time.
Speed
What physical fitness part consists of the ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time?
Cardiovascular fitness
Cardiovascular fitness, strength, muscular endurance are all parts of the
health-related parts of fitness.
Physical fitness is the ability of your whole body, including the muscles, skeleton, _______ and all the other parts, to work together efficiently.
heart
Agility is the ability to change the position of your body quickly and to control the movement of your entire body. True or False
TRUE
Balance is the ability to keep upright while you are standing still or moving. True or False
TRUE
Coordination is the ability to do strength performance quickly. True or False
FALSE
What physical fitness part consists of the ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time?
Cardiovascular fitness
For exercise to be beneficial, you need to increase the amount you do over a period of time. This is called
Principle of Progression
For exercise to be beneficial, you need to exercise _______ times per week.
Three times a week
Which part listed below does not make up the fitness target zone?
Resistance
Which of the following principles of a sound exercise program allows you to gradually increase the amount of exercise you do to improve fitness?
The Principle of Overload
The duration for an effective workout should be how long?
Fifteen to thirty minutes long
Most experts agree that ________ minutes is the minimum amount of time you should raise your heart rate to build cardiovascular fitness.
15
Exercise must last at least _____ to _____ minutes to benefit your fitness.
15 to 30
When doing moderate physical activity with moderate temperatures and humidity prevailing, you should consume adequate amounts of water at
20 or 30 minute intervals.
What are the three basic types of heat casualties?
Heat Cramps, Heat Exhaustion, Heat Stroke
What type of heat casualty is caused by strenuous exertion and exposure to high temperatures and humidity, and is usually the result of excessive salt depletion and dehydration?
Heat exhaustion
When can cadets call a Training Time Out (TTO)?
If they are feeling a sharp pain in their side, If they feel like they are going to throw up, If they fear for their personal safety.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for the Physical Fitness Test (PFT)?
sit-reach, curl-ups, push-ups, and the 1.5-mile-run
The 1.5-mile-run is included in the total physical fitness measurement because of the importance of seeing how effective the heart and lungs work to deliver oxygen to the body. True or False
TRUE
Curl-ups are indicators of upper torso muscular endurance. True or False
FALSE
Cardio respiratory endurance is the ability to persist in physical activity which demands the use of large amounts of oxygen. True or False
TRUE
What statement below is NOT true regarding the PFT rules for Push-Ups?
shoes must be worn
A cadet will pass the Physical Fitness Test (PFT) when he/she
achieves satisfactory in all 4 of the PFT events.
The sit-reach test serves as an important functional measure of hip and back flexibility. True or False
TRUE
The "upper torso" muscular endurance is indicated by which test?
Push-ups
Cadets must hold the touching of their toes on the sit-reach test for ______ seconds.
1 second.
The curl-up test (abdominal muscle group endurance) has been identified as an important factor in preventing what type of injury?
lower back injury.
During the 1.5 mile run a standard quarter-mile running track can be used vice a straight distance course. True or False
True
What is the only reason permitted for a make-up PFT?
valid medical reason
The Physical Fitness Test can be conducted ________.
once in the fall and once in the spring, for most units.
What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who scores an overall point score of "outstanding" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be "satisfactory" in each event?
Ribbon with gold lamp
The lamp worn on the ribbon reflects the level of achievement from the most recent semi-annual PFT offered by the unit. True or False
TRUE
What is the minimum physical fitness standard a cadet must achieve in all categories of the entire Physical Fitness Test, regardless of the total number of points earned, to have earned the PFT ribbon?
Satisfactory
If a cadet earns the silver lamp on the PFT with an overall point score of "excellent," but then scores only a "satisfactory" point score on all portions of the PFT the second time he/she takes the test, what happens to the silver lamp?
the silver lamp is removed and the cadet wears just the PFT ribbon.
When can cadets call a Training Time Out (TTO)?
If they are feeling a sharp pain in their side, If they feel like they are going to throw up, If they fear for their personal safety.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for the Physical Fitness Test (PFT)?
sit-reach, curl-ups, push-ups, and the 1.5-mile-run
Curl-ups are indicators of upper torso muscular endurance. True or False
FALSE
Cardio respiratory endurance is the ability to persist in physical activity which demands the use of large amounts of oxygen. True or False
TRUE
A cadet will pass the Physical Fitness Test (PFT) when he/she
achieves satisfactory in all 4 of the PFT events.
The sit-reach test serves as an important functional measure of hip and back flexibility. True or False
TRUE
The "upper torso" muscular endurance is indicated by which test?
Push-ups
What is the only reason permitted for a make-up PFT?
valid medical reason
What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who has an overall point score of "good" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be satisfactory in each event?
Bronze lamp
The commander of a physical fitness team does not wear the gold anchor on the Physical Fitness Ribbon.
FALSE
What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who has an overall point score of "excellent" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be satisfactory in each event?
Silver lamp
Which one of the following is NOT a purpose of first aid?
To gain insights on safety prevention
What first aid measure should be taken after determining the extent of the patient's injury?
Check for breathing
Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction in a casualty who is unconscious?
The tongue
Primary first aid for complete airway obstruction in a conscious victim is the
Heimlich maneuver
Which of the following is the emergency procedure used for the casualty who is not breathing and whose heart has stopped beating?
Heimlich maneuver, Shock treatment, Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), None of the above
Which of the following statements is true concerning the primary objective of first aid?
To maintain an open airway, To maintain breathing if all possible, To maintain circulation
Which one of the following methods is NOT used to control bleeding?
Cast
What is the type of bleeding in which blood flow is slow and blood oozes from the wound?
Capillary bleeding
What is the type of bleeding in which the bleeding is bright red, and the blood spurts from the wound? This type of bleeding is life threatening and difficult to control.
Arterial bleeding
What is the type of bleeding that is dark red, and flows in a steady stream?
Bleeding from veins
Which one of the following terms describes the use of pressure points in the body to help control arterial bleeding?
Indirect pressure
Which one of the following is the first and most effective method of controlling bleeding?
Direct pressure
Which of the following refers to the failure of the heart and blood vessels to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to the vital organs of the body?
Shock
What is the basic position for treating shock?
Position victim's head lower than the feet
The two main threats with soft tissue injuries are
bleeding and infection.
The most common injuries in a first aid situation are
soft tissue injuries.
A injury to the underlying tissues without a break in the skin or membrane is called a
closed wound.
What bodily injury occurs when a bone is forced out of its joint?
Closed fracture
What do we call a bodily injury to the ligaments that support a joint?
Sprain
Which of the following statements describes how burns are classified?
The depth of injury to the tissue
In case of chemical burns, first flush the area immediately with large quantities of
fresh water.
First aid procedures for dangerous chemicals may be found in the
Material Safety Data Sheet.
The ________ is used to give a rough estimate of the surface area burned on the body of a casualty.
Rule of Nines.
Which of the following is caused by excessive loss of water and salt?
Heat exhaustion
Which of the following burns result from exposure to acids, alkalies, or other strong chemicals?
Chemical burns
Which of the following is caused when the casualty experiences a breakdown of the sweating mechanism and is unable to get rid of excessive body heat?
Heat stroke
Which of the following is caused by muscle pains and spasms that result from a loss of water?
Heat cramps
Which of the following burns are caused by direct contact with electricity?
Electrical burns
Which of the following burns are caused by exposure to hot solids, liquids, gases, or fire?
Thermal burns
Which of the following burns involve all layers of the skin, penetrating into muscle, connective tissue, and bone?
Third-degree burns
Which of the following burns involve only the first layer of the skin?
First-degree
Which of the following burns involve the first and part of the second layer of the skin?
Second-degree burns
Which of the following is caused by prolonged exposure to low or rapidly falling temperatures, cold moisture, snow, or ice?
Hypothermia
Dry heat causes burns; moist heat causes
scalds
Which one of the following is NOT a purpose of first aid?
To gain insights on safety prevention
What first aid measure should be taken after determining the extent of the patient's injury?
Check for breathing
Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction in a casualty who is unconscious?
The tongue
Which of the following is the emergency procedure used for the casualty who is not breathing and whose heart has stopped beating?
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
Which of the following statements is true concerning the primary objective of first aid?
To maintain an open AIRWAY To maintain BREATHING if all possible, To maintain CIRCULATION
Which one of the following methods is NOT used to control bleeding?
Cast
What is the type of bleeding in which blood flow is slow and blood oozes from the wound?
Capillary bleeding
What is the type of bleeding in which the bleeding is bright red, and the blood spurts from the wound? This type of bleeding is life threatening and difficult to control.
Capillary bleeding, Bleeding from the veins, Inward bleeding, None of the above
The two main threats with soft tissue injuries are
bleeding and infection.
The most common injuries in a first aid situation are
soft tissue injuries.
A injury to the underlying tissues without a break in the skin or membrane is called a
closed wound.
What bodily injury occurs when a bone is forced out of its joint?
Closed fracture
Which of the following burns involve only the first layer of the skin?
First-degree
Which one of the following is the first and most effective method of controlling bleeding?
Direct pressure
Which of the following refers to the failure of the heart and blood vessels to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to the vital organs of the body?
Shock
What is the basic position for treating shock?
Position victim's head lower than the feet
The two main threats with soft tissue injuries are
bleeding and infection.
The most common injuries in a first aid situation are
soft tissue injuries.
A injury to the underlying tissues without a break in the skin or membrane is called a
closed wound.
What bodily injury occurs when a bone is forced out of its joint?
Closed fracture
What do we call a bodily injury to the ligaments that support a joint?
Sprain
Which of the following statements describes how burns are classified?
The depth of injury to the tissue
In case of chemical burns, first flush the area immediately with large quantities of
fresh water.
First aid procedures for dangerous chemicals may be found in the
Materail Safety Data Sheet.
Used to give a rough estimate of the surface area burned on the body of a casualty.
Rule of Nines.
Which of the following is caused by excessive loss of water and salt?
Heat exhaustion
Which of the following burns result from exposure to acids, alkalies, or other strong chemicals?
Thermal burns, Chemical burns, Electrical burns, None of the above
Which of the following is caused when the casualty experiences a breakdown of the sweating mechanism and is unable to get rid of excessive body heat?
Heat stroke
Which of the following is caused by muscle pains and spasms that result from a loss of water?
Heat cramps
Which of the following burns are caused by direct contact with electricity?
Thermal burns, Chemical burns, Electrical burns, None of the above
Which of the following burns are caused by exposure to hot solids, liquids, gases, or fire?
Thermal burns
Which of the following burns involve all layers of the skin, penetrating into muscle, connective tissue, and bone?
Third-degree burns
Which of the following burns involve only the first layer of the skin?
First-degree
Which of the following burns involve the first and part of the second layer of the skin?
Second-degree burns
Which of the following is caused by prolonged exposure to low or rapidly falling temperatures, cold moisture, snow, or ice?
Hypothermia
Dry heat causes burns; moist heat causes
scalds
Never rub or massage areas of the body affected by
frostbite
Swelling around the fang marks of a poisonous snakebite occurs usually within
5-10 minutes
When using a blanket drag to transport a casualty, place the victim
face up on the blanket.
The tied-hands crawl is appropriate to transport
an unconscious casualty a short distance
If a casualty suffers a seizure, what should you do?
move all objects out of the way
The sport of orienteering originated in
Scandinavia.
Which of the following is a sport that involves land navigation over unfamiliar terrain with a map and compass?
Orienteering
What color is used to symbolize open, unforested land on an orienteering map?
yellow
Geographical features identified in green on an orienteering map are
vegetation requiring unusual effort to traverse.
Which of the following is the correct number of standardized colors used on topographic and orienteering maps?
Five
The __________ _______ is the difference between true north and magnetic north.
declination angle
Brown lines on a topographical or orienteering map are called
contour lines.
What is the feature appearing on the map as a "U" or a "V" shape and representing a small valley called?
Re-entrant
Which of the following colors on topographic and orienteering maps describe forests with little or no undergrowth that allows for easy passage?
White
Which of the following in the borders of a map is like a table of contents and introduction of a book?
Marginal information
Topographical maps made specifically for orienteering are typically drawn to a scale of
1:10,000 and 1:15,000.
What does the color white represent on orienteering maps?
forest with no undergrowth
What is the most widely used compass used for orienteering which was designed in the early 1930s?
Silva Type 3
An orienteer has determined his/her "pace count" running is 50 (same foot striking the ground). If the distance to travel between two controls is 200 meters, how many paces (running) would be required to traverse this leg?
100
The experienced orienteer will often select an easily located map feature within 100 to 150 meters of the control point as an intermediate destination or
attack point.
Which of the following land navigation techniques refers to the orienteer looking at the map to get a general idea of where to go?
Rough orienteering
An easily recognizable map feature within 100-150 meters of a control point is called a (an)
attack point.
When navigating in flat terrain, orienteers should avoid stretches between readily identifiable waypoints of more than
600 meters.
Which land navigation technique below is a method by which the orienteer uses the compass to determine the bearing or azimuth to be followed?
The beeline
In hill country, two important considerations for route selection are
slope and profile.
Which land navigation technique below involves following an azimuth to the right or left or slightly beyond a hidden control point until reaching a prominent linear catch feature such as a road, fence, pond, or hillside that passes though the control?
Aiming off
Which of the following is a location (usually a linear boundary feature like a perimeter road) where an orienteer may go in the event of injury, excessive fatigue, or becoming lost?
Safety lanes
Color-coded orienteering courses from easiest (shortest) to most difficult are
white, yellow, orange, brown, green, red, and blue.
A type of orienteering competition where controls may be visited in any order and point values are assigned each control is called
score-O.
Participation in organized orienteering events is required for cadet qualification in orienteering.
FALSE
A baked opossum contains how many grams of fat?
10.6
Which of the following is an example of tinder?
paper
The 3 major constituents of foods are
carbohydrates, fats, proteins
A person that ignores an otherwise healthy food source because it is unappetizing
risks survival.
Rafts, parachutes, and tarpaulins are shelters that can be erected quickly with minimum effort. What are these shelters called?
Immediate action shelters
What is the single most important factor in determining ability to survive in cold climates?
Shelter preparation
What two items are just as necessary as food and water for a stranded person?
Shelter and sleep
Which of the following is described as being the most urgent need in a survival situation?
Water
Which of the following is a survivor's second most urgent need in a survival situation?
Food
An adequate shelter
serves as a place to rest, and protection from the effects of the environment.
Which of the following is described as being a key step to take if you know that you might be in a survival situation in a wilderness area?
Prepare a survival kit
To maintain efficiency, survivors require a minimum daily caloric intake of
2,000 calories.
What are the two fundamental goals of a survivor?
Maintain life, and return
What does a survivor have to do to beat all odds against them to survive in a survival situation?
Develop a survival pattern
Shelters that are easy to construct and dismantle in a short period of time are called
improvised shelters.
What are the four principle types of tropical jungle?
Mangrove, primary jungle, secondary jungle, high mountain jungle forest
Traveling in a jungle environment would be greatly aided by the use of a
machete.
Which of the following jungle types is probably the most difficult type of terrain in which to travel and find food?
High mountain jungle
Which of the following tropical jungle types is characterized by large trees and a network of vines?
Primary jungle
Which of the following jungle types is characterized by a swamp-like assembly of tangled roots and interwoven branches, often with a mud floor under a foot or more of brackish water?
Mangrove jungle
Which of the following jungle types is characterized by a very dense growth of smaller vegetation at ground level, often impenetrable except by use of machetes to cut through it?
Secondary jungle
In a cold climate, you should keep your head and ears covered to prevent
loss of body heat.
Good cold weather protection is given in clothing made of
wool.
What percent of the Earth is covered by water?
70
The three types of commands in military drill are
preparatory, command of execution, supplemental
The best way to develop a command voice is to
practice.
Which of the following is NOT a characterisitic of an effective command voice?
punctuality
The term "element" in military drill refers to
any unit which is part of a larger unit.
The command COLUMN HALF RIGHT (LEFT) MARCH requires a turn of
45 degrees.
The three types of commands in military drill are
preparatory, command of execution, supplemental
The best way to develop a command voice is to
practice.
Which of the following is NOT a characterisitic of an effective command voice?
punctuality
The term "element" in military drill refers to
any unit which is part of a larger unit.
The three types of commands in military drill are
preparatory, command of execution, supplemental
The best way to develop a command voice is to
practice.
Which of the following is NOT a characterisitic of an effective command voice?
punctuality
The term "element" in military drill refers to
any unit which is part of a larger unit.
The command COLUMN HALF RIGHT (LEFT) MARCH requires a turn of
45 degrees.
When marching in "quick time," the cadence is
120 (30-inch) steps per minute.
The rhythmic rate of march at a uniform step is called
Cadence
A file is a formation in which persons are placed
one behind the other.
The steps in military drill that are 15 inches in length are
half step and back step.
The 40-inch "distance" in military drill refers to the
space between the chest of one cadet and the back of the cadet ahead.
In NJROTC the purpose of a Training Time Out (TTO) is
an appropriate means for a cadet to obtain relief if he/she is experiencing discomfort during the training exercise.
The term "formation" in military drill refers to
an arrangement of elements of a unit "in line" or "in column."
What is the formation called in which the persons are abreast of (side by side) each other?
Rank
What is the formation called in which the persons are placed one behind the other?
File
When in files, the space between the chest of one cadet and the back of the cadet ahead is called
Distance.
What is the lateral distance measured between individuals from shoulder to shoulder, on the same line called?
Interval
The distance from heel to heel between the feet of a person marching is called the guide.
FALSE
Pace is the length of a full step in quick time, approximately 30 inches.
TRUE
The Guidon Bearer is the person who carries the platoon or squad flag.
TRUE
Alignment is the space occupied by an element or formation, as measured from one flank to the other.
FALSE
Mass formation is the formation of a company or larger unit in which the major elements are in column at close interval and abreast at close interval.
TRUE
Platoons in a company and cadets in a squad are numbered from left to right in line, and from front to rear in column.
FALSE
When overtaking an officer on foot, the salute should be given
when abreast of the officer.
Which one of the following commands is given that allows you to leave your place in ranks but you remain nearby?
FALL OUT
If not armed when the command "PRESENT, ARMS" is given, you execute the hand salute and stay in that position until what command is given?
ORDER, ARMS
When you are at "EYES RIGHT," your head is turned smartly to the right and you look at a
45 degree angle.
How many movements (counts) are required when given a "RIGHT, FACE" command?
2
Which one of the following is NOT a position of rest when halted?
ATTENTION
Which of the following is NOT a correct action when the command "AT EASE" is given?
You may talk
In which of the following examples does an ennlisted person NOT salute an officer?
When at mess and addressed by an officer
At the position of Parade Rest
your right hand is inside your left hand behind your back.
Which one of the following commands can only be given when you are at parade rest?
ATTENTION
When the command "PARADE, REST is given, what action is taken concerning your feet?
Move your left foot smartly 12 inches to the left.
When the command "ATTENTION" is given, you turn your feet out equally to form an angle of how many degrees?
45 Degrees
When at the halt, the command to march forward taking 30-inch steps is
FORWARD, MARCH.
What is the command given to return to the position of attention when you are at "EYES RIGHT?"
READY, FRONT
The length of a full step, in quick time, is how many inches?
30
During movements while marching, the direction toward which alignment is obtained is the direction toward which the movement is made.
TRUE
How many steps per minute are being performed at double time?
180
On the command "CHANGE STEP, MARCH" while at quick time
"MARCH" is given on the right foot.
On the command "RIGHT STEP, MARCH" while at the halt
the right step movement can be repeated at 120 steps per minute.
Which of the following movements is executed in five counts?
Order arms from left shoulder arms
The position of attention with the rifle is
order arms
Another way of saluting when under arms is _____ _____.
Present arms.
When at trail arms, the salute is the same as for order arms except that the butt of the rifle is held _______inches off the ground at the trail.
3
As you place the rifle on your shoulder on the command RIGHT SHOULDER, ARMS, your left hand slides to the small of the stock. The first joint of your left forefinger should be touching the
rear of the receiver.
Which of the following movements is executed in four counts?
Left shoulder arms from order arms
Which of the following movements is executed in two-counts?
Left shoulder arms from port arms
At the position of right (left) shoulder arms, the forearm on the right (left) arm must be _________ to the deck.
Parallel
The demilitarized Mark 5 or Mark 6 service rile may also be called the
M-1 rifle.
All NJROTC cadets are expected to become proficient in the Manual of Arms during the first
two years.
All drill movements are to be executed with ____________. If performed in cadence, they should be done in _____________ time.
snap..., quick
Which part of the drill rifle is included in your grip whenever the left hand grasps the rifle at the point of balance (for example at port arms)?
Sling
Which of the following is the position of attention when armed with the rifle?
Order arms
Which part of the drill rifle rests in the "V" formed by the thumb and forefinger of your right hand?
Hand guard
When the position of order arms is properly executed, the ________ of the rifle rests on the deck and the _______ rests along the outer edge of the right shoe?
butt..., stock
A rifle salute CANNOT be given from which of the following positions?
Sling arms
Identify the rifle position described: The rifle is held across your body in a 45-degree angle with the butt in front of your right hip. Your right hand is at the small part of the stock. The rifle is 4 inches in front of the center of your chest.
Port arms
Going to port arms from right shoulder arms requires a _____-count movement.
Two
What rifle position must you come to when given the command INSPECTION, ARMS, and when being dismissed under arms?
Port arms
Which command below is another way of saluting when under arms?
PRESENT, ARMS
When is the command given for returning the sword to the scabbard?
When at carry or order sword
The sword salute is of what origin?
crusader
Which of the following is the CORRECT command given when drawing the sword?
DRAW, SWORD
What command directs the cadet to bring the point of the sword down smartly to a position three inches above the ground and slightly right of the your left foot?
SWORD (ARMS)
The sword is a symbol of
authority and badge of office.
The etiquette of the sword is more often called which of the following?
Manual of the Sword
What is the most serious breach of sword etiquette?
Dropping a sword when making the sword salute
The arch of swords and the cutting of a cake are commonly conducted at the annual
Military Ball
What part of the sword is made of bone, ivory, or special hard white plastic?
The sword grip
Where is the sword stored when it is NOT in formation?
Scabbard
What position are you in when drawing the sword and your thumb is against your trousers seam and the rest of your fingers are joined behind the scabbard?
Carry sword
The command to go to the position of present sword may be which of the following?
All of the above
What command is given ONLY when halted at order sword or when marching at carry sword?
EYES, RIGHT (LEFT)
What command is given when the platoon is at ease or rest?
PLATOON, ATTENTION
What command is NORMALLY given to the platoon from order sword (arms)?
Parade Rest
What command is given to push smartly down on and release the grip of the sword so that the sword slides all the way into the scabbard?
SWORD
The command "Carry SWORD" can only be given when halted at
Order Sword or Present Sword.
In the "Arch of Swords" ceremony, after the arch honorees have cleared the arch, the senior cadet usher gives what command?
"Return SWORD"
Which sword movement is a survival of fancy moves made in seventeenth century military reviews?
Sword salute on the march
In the ceremony known as "the cutting of the cake," the company commander's date cuts the cake with the company commander's sword. The first piece of cake goes to
the spouse of the Senior Naval Science Instructor or other honoree.
What characteristics make a good guidon bearer?
All the above are correct
The flat part of the spearhead of a guidon should always face
front.
What is the Guidon?
An identification flag
When is the guidon NORMALLY displayed?
All of the above are correct
Who selects the guidon bearer?
The SNSI (Senior Naval Science Instructor)
When the ferrule rests on the ground touching the right shoe to the right of the toes, the position is called?
Order guidon
What is the normal position of the guidon while marching at quick time?
Carry guidon
The execution of carry guidon from order guidon is begun on the preparatory command of a movement such as
FORWARD, MARCH.
The position of ready guidon may be used as a signal for the execution of any command except
present arms and eyes right (left).
What guidon position is used as a signal for helping the cadets in the execution of commands where hearing verbal commands is difficult?
Ready guidon
The command GUIDON, SALUTE is executed in ___________count(s).
Two
Which of the following commands is given when the guidon bearer moves his/her left hand, palm down, to a position approximately 18 inches above his/her right hand, keeping the left arm parallel to the ground?
SALUTE
The command PARADE, REST for the guidon bearer is executed in ______count(s).
One
The flagstaff topping ornament for the guidon shall be the
spearhead.
What characteristics make a good guidon bearer?
All the above are correct
The flat part of the spearhead of a guidon should always face
front.
What is the Guidon?
An identification flag
When is the guidon NORMALLY displayed?
All of the above are correct
Who selects the guidon bearer?
The SNSI (Senior Naval Science Instructor)
When the ferrule rests on the ground touching the right shoe to the right of the toes, the position is called?
Order guidon
What is the normal position of the guidon while marching at quick time?
Carry guidon
The execution of carry guidon from order guidon is begun on the preparatory command of a movement such as
FORWARD, MARCH.
The position of ready guidon may be used as a signal for the execution of any command except
present arms and eyes right (left).
What guidon position is used as a signal for helping the cadets in the execution of commands where hearing verbal commands is difficult?
Ready guidon
The command GUIDON, SALUTE is executed in ___________count(s).
Two
Which of the following commands is given when the guidon bearer moves his/her left hand, palm down, to a position approximately 18 inches above his/her right hand, keeping the left arm parallel to the ground?
SALUTE
The command PARADE, REST for the guidon bearer is executed in ______count(s).
One
The flagstaff topping ornament for the guidon shall be the
spearhead.
What movement is the platoon performing when the guidon bearer brings the staff of the guidon diagonally across his/her body with the flagstaff topping ornament to the left?
Double time march
What command is given for the guidon to be lowered straight to the front until the staff is resting in the guidon bearer's right armpit and horizontal to the ground?
PRESENT, ARMS
What command is given from fall out when the guidon bearer goes back to his/her position in the formation and stands at attention at order guidon?
FALL IN
What time of the day is the national ensign hoisted and lowered?
0800 and the end of the day
Which of the following steps is correct in folding the flag?
Fold the flag the long way so the crease parallels the red and white stripes
What is the staff ornament for the national ensign when displayed on the eight-foot pole in an NJROTC color guard?
Spearhead
During evening colors, the ensign is lowered
slowly.
What is the staff ornament for the national ensign, when displayed on the nine and a half foot pole in the NJROTC color guard?
The Battle-ax
When referring to the national ensign, you are referring to?
The American flag
The size of the color guard
may vary.
The flag detail should be composed of one petty officer and
two nonrated cadets.
Execution is begun on the preparatory command for which of the following color guard commands?
All of the above
The color guard marches at the normal cadence of
112-120 thirty-inch steps per minute (quick time).
Which of the following gives the correct definition of the term "colors"?
Organizational or National colors
The national ensign should be flown from the
truck of the mast/peak of the mast.
Which of the following executes "present arms" at the preparatory command, PRESENT?
National Color
When at present colors, the organizational colors staff is
inclined to the front.
What is the American flag called when mounted on a staff and carried by individuals on foot?
National Colors
What part of the flagstaff are the halyards secured to?
The cleats
On what command does the color guard (with rifles) execute right and left shoulder arms?
CARRY, COLOR
What is the command given when changing from order colors to present colors?
PRESENT, ARMS
What is the command given when changing from present colors to order colors?
ORDER, COLORS (ARMS)
What command is given only when halted at order colors, or while marching at carry colors?
EYES, RIGHT (LEFT)
On the command of execution of order color from carry color, all color bearers should simultaneously grip the staff above the lower ferrule
with the left hand and remove the ferrule from the sling socket.
This command is executed while halted, marking time or marching. When marking time or marching, this command is given as the left foot strikes the deck.
COUNTERMARCH, MARCH
Which is correct for executing "TO THE REAR, MARCH" when at quick time?
Take one more step on the command of execution and pivot on both feet at the same time.
When executing a left or a right "flanking" movement, how many degrees to the right or left are the cadets turning simultaneously?
90
Which hand removes your cover when the command "UNCOVER, TWO" is given?
Right hand
What command is given to form the squad?
FALL IN
What command is given to align a squad at normal interval?
DRESS RIGHT, DRESS
When the command "COLUMN RIGHT (LEFT), MARCH" is given, how many steps does the leading cadet advance before pivoting on the ball of the right (left) foot?
One full step
When executing a left or a right "oblique" movement, how many degrees to the right or left are the cadets turning simultaneously?
45
How many cadets are there normally under the direction of the squad leader?
8 but not more than 12
When the squad is armed with Rifles, what command is given when moving short distances?
"Trail, ARMS"
During all drill movements, the squad leader remains centered at a distance of _________ from the squad.
3 paces
How many individuals make up a squad?
12-Aug
If the squad executes a _______ ______ while marching, the squad leader, who is facing the squad, executes a left step in cadence with the squad to maintain proper position?
Right step
If the squad executes a ______ ______ while marching, the squad leader executes a half step in cadence with the squad to maintain proper position.
Back step
When dismissing the squad, what command is given to dismiss armed troops?
"Inspection ARMS; and DISMISSED"
When dismissing the squad, what command is given to dismiss unarmed troops?
"DISMISSED"
On this command, individuals providing interval place the heel of their left hand on their hip with the elbow in line with their body and members gaining interval move by short steps until their right arm touches the elbow of the individual to the left.
"At Close Interval, Dress Right, DRESS"
"Dress Right (Left), DRESS" and "At Close Interval, Dress Right, DRESS" are commands given to
Align the squad
When forming an armed squad, members fall in with weapons at the position of ____________.
Order Arms
What command concludes the movement Dress Right Dress?
"Ready, FRONT"
"Column Right (Left), MARCH" and "Column Half Right (Left), MARCH" are commands used to
change direction of a column
On the command of FALL IN, the guide posts himself/herself so that the first rank will be three paces from and centered on the platoon
mustering petty officer.
When the platoon is formed in line at normal interval, where is the platoon commander positioned?
6 paces in front of and centered on the platoon
What command is given for all cadets in the company to form lines in line formation four paces between platoons?
FALL IN
What command is given when the guide raises his/her left arm to obtain proper interval during alignment of the platoon?
DRESS RIGHT, DRESS
How are squads numbered in a platoon?
Right to left in column and from front to rear in line
How are changes in platoon formation to be executed in a platoon unless specified that the platoon be at close interval?
Normal interval and distance between files and ranks
What command would you use to cause your platoon to make a 45-degree left turn in column?
"Left, OBLIQUE"
When in formation, the platoon normally forms in line with the squad leaders on the _______ of their squads and the guide on the _______ of the first squad leader.
Right, Right
When the mustering petty officer forms the platoon he/she takes how many paces in front of the point where the center of the platoon will be?
3 paces
When forming a platoon, the other squad leaders take up positions behind the leader of the first squad at a distance of
40 inches
What is the purpose of the movement "Count OFF" in a platoon?
Designate relative positions in ranks of each member of the platoon
The movement Open Ranks increases the distance between ranks how many inches to accommodate the movements of an inspection party or to stack arms?
70 inches
When forming the platoon for physical drill, what is the command given by the platoon commander in order to designate odd and even ranks?
From Front to Rear, Count, OFF"
What is the purpose of Files and Reform movements?
To diminish the front of the platoon in column.
The purpose of Closing Ranks in a platoon is to decrease the distance between open ranks to what distance?
40 inches
For slight changes of direction of a column, the command is?
A."INCLINE TO THE RIGHT (LEFT)"
What is the purpose of the movement MARCHING IN THE OBLIQUE?
To shift the line of march to the right or left for a short distance and resume marching in the original direction.
To teach the platoon to march to the oblique, the leader aligns the unit facing
Half right (left)
To close the interval between files in a column to 4 inches, the command is
"Close, MARCH"
To temporarily halt a squad in the oblique direction, in order to correct errors, the command is
"In Place, HALT"
To halt the squad facing the original direction of march the command is
Platoon, HALT
How many platoons do most NJROTC units have in their company?
3
In company drill, the basic drill unit is the
platoon
When the company commander is absent, who takes the post and drills the company?
The senior officer present
For company drill and ceremonies, the unit guidon bearer takes what position relative to the company commander?
1 pace to the rear and 1 pace to the left
When the company forms in line, how far apart are the platoons of the company?
4 paces
After a company is formed by an officer, the officer gives the command __________ at which time each platoon commander salutes and says, "Sir/Ma'am, all present or accounted for," or "Sir/Ma'am, cadets absent."
"REPORT"
During company drill, when brining a platoon on line with a halted element, the platoon commander turns his/her head and eyes towards the halted element to give the command to
Halt or mark time
When the senior enlisted cadet forms the company in line with those personnel to receive awards, promotions, etc. the first recipient in the priority sequence is
cadet awards.
At the command "FALL IN," the company forms in line formation
at normal interval.
When does the company form at close interval?
For roll call or when space is limited
Normally, the company is initially formed by
The senior officer present
If the company has been dismissed for a short period of time, to save time it may be reformed by
The company commander
To align the company when in column, platoons in column, the command is
"COVER"
At the halt or in march while in column, to change direction 90 degrees right or left, the company commander orders
"Column Right (Left), MARCH"
When the company commander gives the command "DISMISS THE COMPANY," who carries out the order?
The senior enlisted cadet
When the company commander gives the order "DISMISS YOUR PLATOONS," the order is carried out by
The mustering petty officer.
In executing company drill, when the company commander gives the preparatory command "Company," the platoon commanders give the preparatory command
"Platoon"
What command does the company commander order to change direction while in column?
Column Right (Left), MARCH
What is the command given by the company commander when company makes a slight change in direction?
INCLINE TO THE RIGHT (LEFT)
What is the company formation normally used for company ceremonies?
Company in Line